1. Number of teeth in 3 year old child?
a. 12
b. 20#
c. 28
d. 32
The first teeth begin to break through the gums at about 6 months of age. Usually, the first two teeth to erupt are the two bottom central incisors (the two bottom front teeth). Next, the top four front teeth emerge. After that, other teeth slowly begin to fill in, usually in pairs - one each side of the upper or lower jaw - until all 20 teeth (10 in the upper jaw and 10 in the lower jaw) have come in by the time the child is 2 ½ to 3 years old. The complete set of primary teeth is in the mouth from the age of 2 ½ to 3 years of age to 6 to 7 years of age
the following is not seen in chronic renal failure
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypophosphatemia#
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypernatremia
3. Which of the following does not present with hemoptysis?
a. acute pulmonary edema
b. mitral stenosis
c. bronchogenic carcinoma
d. aortic regurgitation#
4. Earliest immunoglobulin synthesized by fetus?
a. Ig M# 2o weeks
b. Ig G
c. Ig A
d. Ig E
5. Christmas disease is defect of which factor
a. factor 8
b. factor 9#
c. factor 10
d. factor 7
6. Gower sign in a child is seen in :
a. dermatomyositis
b. myotonic dystrophy
c. duchenne muscular dystrophy#
d. peroneal muscle atrophy
However some guys said that this question mentioned the patient as an adult in which case the answer will switch to dermatomyositis. Take the essence and rest is your destiny!! Criticism is welcome
7. grave’s opthamopathy mostly presents as;
a. proptosis
b. diplopia#
c. blindness
d. lid lag
8. lesion seen in renal rickets is ;
a. malabsorbtion of vitamin D from gut
b. inhibition of formation of active form#
c. lack of action of active form of vitamin D
d. renal wasting of phosphate
9. antibodies for diagnosis of SLE?
a. dsDNA#
b. ANA
c. AMA
d. Anti – histone antibodies
10. lacuanr cells are seen in which type of lymphoma?
a. burkitt lymphoma
b. nodular sclerosis#
c. lymphocyte deplated
d. mixed cellularity
11. subconjuntival hemorrhages are seen in?
a. measles
b. mumps
c. pertusis#
d. diphtheria
12. Which is not seen in nephritic syndrome?
a. hematuria#
b. hypocomplementemia
c. hypoproteinemia
d. hypercholestremia
13. looser zones are seen in;
a. osteomalacia#
b. osteoporosis
c. osteonecrosis
d. multiple myeloma
14. lucid interval is seen in
a. extradural hemorrhage#
b. intradural hemorrhage
c. sub arachnoid hemorrhage
d. intra – ventricular hemorrhage
15. Which is incorrect of wilms tumor?
a. presents as abdominal mass
b. spreads via lympahtics#
c. fever
d. hematuria
16. sudden hypocalcemia presents as:
a. tetany#
b. larygneal edema
c. neuromuscular irritability
d. vascular instability
Tuesday, December 7, 2010
Thursday, December 2, 2010
MCI Sept. 2010
MCI Sept. 2010
1. Hallmark of diabetic retinopathy
a. Micro aneurysm
b. Dot and Blot Haemorrhages
c. Flame Shaped Haemorrhages
d. Cotton Wool Spots
2. Buerger’s disease involves
a. Arteries
b. Veins
c. Nerves
d. All
3. Friable vegetations in heart seen in
1. Hallmark of diabetic retinopathy
a. Micro aneurysm
b. Dot and Blot Haemorrhages
c. Flame Shaped Haemorrhages
d. Cotton Wool Spots
2. Buerger’s disease involves
a. Arteries
b. Veins
c. Nerves
d. All
3. Friable vegetations in heart seen in
a. Rheumatic Heart Disease
b. Libman Sach’s
c. Rheumatoid
d. Infective Endocarditis
4. Fast clubbing seen in
a. Lung Abscess
b. Bronchiectasis
c. Empyema Thoracis
d. Bacterial Endocarditis
5. What will you give in diarrhea
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Folic acid
d. Magnesium
6. A patient with ↑ in WBC, ↑ in Lymphocytes and hepato-splenomegaly
a. Leukemia
b. Anaemia
c. Bahima Disease
d. Thalassemia
7. Mountain sickness 1st C/F
a. Lack of Apetite
b. Headache
c. Nausea / Vomiting
d. Insomnia
8. Megaloblastic anaemia is presented by all of the following except
a. Howell-Jolly Bodies
b. Giant bands ( Neutrophiles )
c. Macroovalocytes
d. Heinz Bodies
9. Cardiac output is low in
a. Mitral Regurgutation
b. Tricuspid Atresia
c. Asystole
d. Ventricular fibrillation
10. Figure of 8 or Snowman appearance
a. PDA
b. ASD
c. TAPVC
d. VSD
b. Libman Sach’s
c. Rheumatoid
d. Infective Endocarditis
4. Fast clubbing seen in
a. Lung Abscess
b. Bronchiectasis
c. Empyema Thoracis
d. Bacterial Endocarditis
5. What will you give in diarrhea
a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Folic acid
d. Magnesium
6. A patient with ↑ in WBC, ↑ in Lymphocytes and hepato-splenomegaly
a. Leukemia
b. Anaemia
c. Bahima Disease
d. Thalassemia
7. Mountain sickness 1st C/F
a. Lack of Apetite
b. Headache
c. Nausea / Vomiting
d. Insomnia
8. Megaloblastic anaemia is presented by all of the following except
a. Howell-Jolly Bodies
b. Giant bands ( Neutrophiles )
c. Macroovalocytes
d. Heinz Bodies
9. Cardiac output is low in
a. Mitral Regurgutation
b. Tricuspid Atresia
c. Asystole
d. Ventricular fibrillation
10. Figure of 8 or Snowman appearance
a. PDA
b. ASD
c. TAPVC
d. VSD
I will be posting more questions very soon with explanation. . . .
Tuesday, December 1, 2009
MCI SEPT 2009 MEDICINE
Respiratory system
1. Muscles involved in quiet breathing:
a. Diaphragm alone
b. Diaphragm with external intercostals!
c. Diaphragm with internal intercostals
d. Diaphragm with scalaneus anterior
2. Rapid shallow breathing is seen with:
a. Asthma!
b. ILD
c. Pneumonia
d. Brochiectasis
3. Not seen in legionarre disease
a. Dry cough
b. Fever
c. Diarrhea
d. Mental confusion!
4. Apical lung cancer can cause:
a. horner syndrome!
b. SVC syndrome
c. Caplan syndrome
d. Felty syndrome
5. Type 2 respiratory failure is seen with:
a. COPD!
b. Fracture Rib
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Bronchiectasis
6. Anti tobacco day:
a. 31st may!
b. 31st august
c. 31st September
d. 31st December
7. bupripion acts by:
a. Inhibiting nor –epinephrine /dopamine uptake and reduces craving!
b. Inhibits serotonin and reduced withdrawl symptoms of smoking
c. Inhibits Ach levels
d. Inhibits choline acyl transferase.
8. Type 3 respiratory failure which is difficult:
a. Walking 100 metres!
b. Use bathroom
c. Get up from the bed
d. All of above
9. felty syndrome is associated with
a. Rheumatoid arthritis!
b. SLE
c. Sarcoiudosis
d. Hamman rich syndrome
10. 100%oxygen will not improve cyanosis in
a. TOF!
b. Pneumonia
c. Shock
d. Pulmonary edema
11. ECG change in pulmonary embolism
a. S1Q3T3!
b. Sinus bradycardia
c. T wave inversion
d. Tall T waves in V5-V6
12. Preferred Ventilation modality for pulmonary edema:
a. CPAP!
b. IPPV
c. ACMV
d. PSV
13. Best diagnosis for Brochiectasis
a. HRCT!
b. Bronchoscopy flexible
c. Bronchoscopy rigid
d. MRI
14. When both vagi are cut, what happens to respiration:
a. Fast and shallow
b. Fast and deep
c. Slow and deep
d. Slow and shallow
15. PO2/ FiO2 ratio in ARDS is less than
a. 500
b. 400
c. 300
d. 200!
16. Dyspnea at rest is which grade by classification:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4!
17. For minmal pleural efffussion diagnosis by CXR, pleural fluid amount is:
a. 50ml!
b. 150ml
c. 200ml
d. 250ml
18. SVC syndrome is caused by:
a. Ca lung!
b. Lymphoma
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Silicosis
19. Acute asthma can be best treated by:
a. Steroids
b. leukotriene modifiers
c. ketotifen
d. salbutamol.!
Hematology
20. auer rods are seen in which variety of AML
a. M3!
b. M4
c. M5
d. M6
21. Decreased osmotic fragility is seen in:
a. Hereditary spherocytosis
b. Sickle cell anemia!
c. thalassemia
d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
22. False about tumor lysis syndrome is
a. hypercalcemia!
b. hyperphosphtemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. hyperuricemia
23. All are true about heparin except:
a. Anti-dote is protamine sulfate
b. Increased activity of anti-thrombin
c. Can only be given in –vivo!
d. Inhibits conversion of activated factor X
24. Characteristic of chediak hegashi syndrome is all except:
a. Defective phagocytosis!
b. Life threatening bacterial infections with staph aureus
c. Oculo cutaneous albinism
d. Lysosomal storage disorder
25. Not a complicatin of blood transfusion except:
a. Citrate poisoning
b. hypocalcemia
c. hypomagnesemia
d. Hypokalemia!
26. Defect in Di-george syndrome is:
a. Defective cell mediated immunity!
b. hypocalcemia
c. Thymus hypoplasia
d. Agammaglobulinemia
27. Not seen with hogkins lymphoma
a. B cell lineage
b. Contigous spread to lymph nodes
c. Chemotherapy for stage 2A!
d. Associated with EBV
Cardiovascular
28. CVP cathrether is ideally placed at
a. SVC
b. RA !
c. SVC and RA
d. Subclavian vein
29. Coronary predominance is determined by
a. Vessel feeding post descending artery!
b. Vessel feeding left circumflex artery
c. sinu atrail artery
d. Vessel feeding LAD
30. Austin flint murmur is seen in:
a. AR!
b. AS
c. MR
d. MS
31. Postural hypotension is defined as
a. Fall in BP exceeding 20/10 mm Hg on change of posture/table tilt test!
b. Fall in BP exceeding 40/20 mmHg on change of posture
c. Any fluctuation of BP on change of posture that causes dizziness/syncope
d. Fall in only SBP more than 20 mg Hg on change of posture
32. Sustained VT is best managed by
a. CCB
b. digoxin
c. Adenosine
d. lignocaine!
Central nervous system
33. acetycholine receptors at neuro-muscular end plate is reduced in
a. Myasthenia Gravis!
b. Lambert Eaton syndrome
c. Hyokalemic periodic paralysis
d. Spino-cerebellar ataxia
34. Correct about prions is:
a. misfolded cellular proteins!
b. Smallest living particle with nucleic acid
c. EEG shows 3/sec spike and slow wave on EEG
d. Not demons ratable on brain biopsy
35. sumatriptan is
a. 5HT antagonist used for acute migraine!
b. 5HT agonist used for opthalmoplegic migraine
c. NE uptake inhibitor used for recurrent attacks of migraine prophylaxis
d. Dopamine uptake inhibitor used for migraine attacks
36. Most common cause of meningitis in adults is
a. Strept pneumoniae!
b. Neisseria meningitis
c. Hemophilus influenzae
d. Listeria monocytogenes
37. kernig sign is seen in
a. Acute bacterial meningitis!
b. Encephalitis
c. Viral meningitis
d. All of above
38. Chronic meningitis is seen with
a. crytococcosis
b. C. jejuni
c. TB!
d. arboviruses
39. In duchenne muscular dystrophy the muscles mainly affected are
a. truncal muscles
b. Shoulder girdle muscles
c. Lower limb proximal muscles!
d. Lower limb distal muscles
Fluids and electrolytes
40. Delirium and worsening of neurological status in patient of TURP is due to
a. Water intoxication!
b. hypernatremia
c. Pontine myelinosis
d. hypomagnesemia
41. Normal anion gap is seen in
a. CRF
b. Methyl alcohol poisoning
c. Starvation
d. ureterosigmoidostomy!
42. ECG finding of Hypokalemia is
a. Elevated T wave
b. Inverted T wave!
c. Normal T wave
d. Bified T wave
Endocrinology
43. Most common cause of hypothyroidism is India
a. Iodine deficieny!
b. riedel thyroidits
c. hashimoto thyroiditis
d. Drug induced
44. Medical adrenalectomy is done with
a. aminogluthemide!
b. mitotane
c. Meta-pyrone
d. mirapex
a.Aminoglutethimide is an anti-steroid drug, It blocks the production of steroids derived from cholesterol and is clinically used in the treatment of Cushing's syndrome and metastatic breast cancer. It is also a drug of abuse by body builders.
Aminoglutethimide has a two mechanisms of action:
It blocks aromatase[2] in the generation of estrogens from androstenedione and testosterone.
It blocks the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone by inhibiting the enzyme P450scc and consequently decreases synthesis of all hormonally active steroids.
Side effects
Its side effects are skin rash, hepatotoxicity, inhibition of cortisol in the human body, and it may also cause hypothyroidism.Since cortisol helps break down muscle, aminoglutethimide is used by bodybuilders in a steroid cycle.
Clinical uses
Aminoglutethimide is indicated in conjunction with other drugs for the suppression of adrenal function in patients with Cushing's syndrome.
It is also a 2nd or 3rd line choice for the treatment of hormone sensitive (estrogen and progesterone) metastatic breast cancer.
Abuse
Aminoglutethimide is abused by body builders and other steroid users to lower circulating levels of cortisol in the body and prevent muscle loss. Cortisol is catabolic to protein in muscle and effective blockade of P450scc by aminogluthethimide at high doses prevents muscle loss
b. Metyrapone (Metopirone) is a drug used in the diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency and occasionally in the treatment of Cushing's syndrome (hypercortisolism).
Metyrapone blocks cortisol synthesis by inhibiting steroid 11β-hydroxylase. This stimulates ACTH secretion, which in turn increases plasma 11-deoxycortisol levels. When excess ACTH secretion is the cause of hypercortisolism, the metyrapone test helps clarify if the source of the ACTH is pituitary or ectopic (non-pituitary
Uses
Metyrapone can be used in the diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency. Metyrapone 30mg/kg, maximum dose 3000 mg, is administered at midnight usually with a snack. The plasma cortisol and 11-deoxycortisol are measured the next morning between 8:00 and 9:00 am. A plasma cortisol less than 220nmol/l indicates adequate inhibition of 11β-hydroxylase. In patients with intact Hypothamalmo-pituitary-adrenal axis, CRH and ACTH levels rise as a response to the falling cortisol levels. This results in an increase of the steroid precursors in the pathway. Therefore if 11-deoxycortisol levels do not rise and remains less than 7 mcg/dl then it is highly suggestive of impaired HPA axis.Metyrapone test may aid in verifying the cause of Cushing's syndrome. Most patients with pituitary dysfunction and/or pituitary microadenoma will increase ACTH secretion in response to metyrapone, while most ectopic ACTH-producing tumors will not. Pituitary macroadenomas do not always respond to metyrapone.
c.Mitotane, is a medication used in the treatment of the adrenocortical carcinoma.Mitotane alters steroid peripheral metabolism, directly suppresses the adrenal cortex and alters cortisone metabolism leading to hypocortisolism. Side effects include anorexia and nausea (88%), diarrhea (38%), vomiting (23%), decreased memory and ability to concentrate (50%), rash (23%), gynecomastia (50%), arthralgia (19%), and leukopenia (7%).
d.mirapex [ that’s the trade name for Pramipexole! And man are u expected to know that?] Pramipexole is used for treatment of Parkinsonism and paralysis agitans.
45. Best for diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism is:
a. Elevated TSH !
b. Reduced TSH
c. Reduced T4 and T3
d. Elevated TRH
46. sibutramine is used in
a. Obesity With BMI 30-35!
b. Obesity with BMI 35-40
c. Pre- obesity
d. Weight gain on patient of hypothyroidism
47. catecholamine maximum secreted in phaeochromocytoma is :
a. nor epinephrine!
b. epi nephrine
c. serotonin
d. 5 HT derivatives
48. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is seen with
a. Lipoid nephrosis
b. finnish variety of nephrotic syndrome
c. Diabetes mellitus!
d. IgA nepgropathy
49. After splenectomy infection not seen is
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Gonococcus
c. H. influenzae
d. klebsiella!
50. Nosocomial infection can be best reduced by
a. Hand washing
b. Antibiotics determined by culture sensitivity
c. GM –CSF administration
d. Face masks and good air flow!
51. Serum alkaline phosphatase SAP is increased in all except:
a. Multiple myeloma!
b. Rickets
c. hypoparathyrodism
d. osteomalacia
52. Sequence of changes in tips of fingers in Raynauds phenomenon is:
a. white –blue –red!
b. white –red- blue
c. red –blue white
d. blue- white red
53. All occur in heat stroke except:
a. Loss of conciousness
b. Hyperthermia
c. Muscle cramps
d. Sweating!
54. Best for diagnosis of diabetic nephropathy is
a. Urine micro-albuminemia
b. Renal biopsy!
c. DMSA scan
d. Glycosylated hemoglobin
55. Atrophy of adrenal gland will cause levels of which hormone to decrease
a. ACTH
b. Prolactin
c. CRH!
d. TRH
GIT
:
56. Heller’s myotomy is best suited for
a. achalsia cardia!
b. GERD
c. Nutcracker esophagus
d. Barret esophagus
57. Bleeding esophageal varices are best treated by:
a. octreotide!
b. vsopressin
c. somatostatinAVP
1. Muscles involved in quiet breathing:
a. Diaphragm alone
b. Diaphragm with external intercostals!
c. Diaphragm with internal intercostals
d. Diaphragm with scalaneus anterior
2. Rapid shallow breathing is seen with:
a. Asthma!
b. ILD
c. Pneumonia
d. Brochiectasis
3. Not seen in legionarre disease
a. Dry cough
b. Fever
c. Diarrhea
d. Mental confusion!
4. Apical lung cancer can cause:
a. horner syndrome!
b. SVC syndrome
c. Caplan syndrome
d. Felty syndrome
5. Type 2 respiratory failure is seen with:
a. COPD!
b. Fracture Rib
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Bronchiectasis
6. Anti tobacco day:
a. 31st may!
b. 31st august
c. 31st September
d. 31st December
7. bupripion acts by:
a. Inhibiting nor –epinephrine /dopamine uptake and reduces craving!
b. Inhibits serotonin and reduced withdrawl symptoms of smoking
c. Inhibits Ach levels
d. Inhibits choline acyl transferase.
8. Type 3 respiratory failure which is difficult:
a. Walking 100 metres!
b. Use bathroom
c. Get up from the bed
d. All of above
9. felty syndrome is associated with
a. Rheumatoid arthritis!
b. SLE
c. Sarcoiudosis
d. Hamman rich syndrome
10. 100%oxygen will not improve cyanosis in
a. TOF!
b. Pneumonia
c. Shock
d. Pulmonary edema
11. ECG change in pulmonary embolism
a. S1Q3T3!
b. Sinus bradycardia
c. T wave inversion
d. Tall T waves in V5-V6
12. Preferred Ventilation modality for pulmonary edema:
a. CPAP!
b. IPPV
c. ACMV
d. PSV
13. Best diagnosis for Brochiectasis
a. HRCT!
b. Bronchoscopy flexible
c. Bronchoscopy rigid
d. MRI
14. When both vagi are cut, what happens to respiration:
a. Fast and shallow
b. Fast and deep
c. Slow and deep
d. Slow and shallow
15. PO2/ FiO2 ratio in ARDS is less than
a. 500
b. 400
c. 300
d. 200!
16. Dyspnea at rest is which grade by classification:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4!
17. For minmal pleural efffussion diagnosis by CXR, pleural fluid amount is:
a. 50ml!
b. 150ml
c. 200ml
d. 250ml
18. SVC syndrome is caused by:
a. Ca lung!
b. Lymphoma
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Silicosis
19. Acute asthma can be best treated by:
a. Steroids
b. leukotriene modifiers
c. ketotifen
d. salbutamol.!
Hematology
20. auer rods are seen in which variety of AML
a. M3!
b. M4
c. M5
d. M6
21. Decreased osmotic fragility is seen in:
a. Hereditary spherocytosis
b. Sickle cell anemia!
c. thalassemia
d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
22. False about tumor lysis syndrome is
a. hypercalcemia!
b. hyperphosphtemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. hyperuricemia
23. All are true about heparin except:
a. Anti-dote is protamine sulfate
b. Increased activity of anti-thrombin
c. Can only be given in –vivo!
d. Inhibits conversion of activated factor X
24. Characteristic of chediak hegashi syndrome is all except:
a. Defective phagocytosis!
b. Life threatening bacterial infections with staph aureus
c. Oculo cutaneous albinism
d. Lysosomal storage disorder
25. Not a complicatin of blood transfusion except:
a. Citrate poisoning
b. hypocalcemia
c. hypomagnesemia
d. Hypokalemia!
26. Defect in Di-george syndrome is:
a. Defective cell mediated immunity!
b. hypocalcemia
c. Thymus hypoplasia
d. Agammaglobulinemia
27. Not seen with hogkins lymphoma
a. B cell lineage
b. Contigous spread to lymph nodes
c. Chemotherapy for stage 2A!
d. Associated with EBV
Cardiovascular
28. CVP cathrether is ideally placed at
a. SVC
b. RA !
c. SVC and RA
d. Subclavian vein
29. Coronary predominance is determined by
a. Vessel feeding post descending artery!
b. Vessel feeding left circumflex artery
c. sinu atrail artery
d. Vessel feeding LAD
30. Austin flint murmur is seen in:
a. AR!
b. AS
c. MR
d. MS
31. Postural hypotension is defined as
a. Fall in BP exceeding 20/10 mm Hg on change of posture/table tilt test!
b. Fall in BP exceeding 40/20 mmHg on change of posture
c. Any fluctuation of BP on change of posture that causes dizziness/syncope
d. Fall in only SBP more than 20 mg Hg on change of posture
32. Sustained VT is best managed by
a. CCB
b. digoxin
c. Adenosine
d. lignocaine!
Central nervous system
33. acetycholine receptors at neuro-muscular end plate is reduced in
a. Myasthenia Gravis!
b. Lambert Eaton syndrome
c. Hyokalemic periodic paralysis
d. Spino-cerebellar ataxia
34. Correct about prions is:
a. misfolded cellular proteins!
b. Smallest living particle with nucleic acid
c. EEG shows 3/sec spike and slow wave on EEG
d. Not demons ratable on brain biopsy
35. sumatriptan is
a. 5HT antagonist used for acute migraine!
b. 5HT agonist used for opthalmoplegic migraine
c. NE uptake inhibitor used for recurrent attacks of migraine prophylaxis
d. Dopamine uptake inhibitor used for migraine attacks
36. Most common cause of meningitis in adults is
a. Strept pneumoniae!
b. Neisseria meningitis
c. Hemophilus influenzae
d. Listeria monocytogenes
37. kernig sign is seen in
a. Acute bacterial meningitis!
b. Encephalitis
c. Viral meningitis
d. All of above
38. Chronic meningitis is seen with
a. crytococcosis
b. C. jejuni
c. TB!
d. arboviruses
39. In duchenne muscular dystrophy the muscles mainly affected are
a. truncal muscles
b. Shoulder girdle muscles
c. Lower limb proximal muscles!
d. Lower limb distal muscles
Fluids and electrolytes
40. Delirium and worsening of neurological status in patient of TURP is due to
a. Water intoxication!
b. hypernatremia
c. Pontine myelinosis
d. hypomagnesemia
41. Normal anion gap is seen in
a. CRF
b. Methyl alcohol poisoning
c. Starvation
d. ureterosigmoidostomy!
42. ECG finding of Hypokalemia is
a. Elevated T wave
b. Inverted T wave!
c. Normal T wave
d. Bified T wave
Endocrinology
43. Most common cause of hypothyroidism is India
a. Iodine deficieny!
b. riedel thyroidits
c. hashimoto thyroiditis
d. Drug induced
44. Medical adrenalectomy is done with
a. aminogluthemide!
b. mitotane
c. Meta-pyrone
d. mirapex
a.Aminoglutethimide is an anti-steroid drug, It blocks the production of steroids derived from cholesterol and is clinically used in the treatment of Cushing's syndrome and metastatic breast cancer. It is also a drug of abuse by body builders.
Aminoglutethimide has a two mechanisms of action:
It blocks aromatase[2] in the generation of estrogens from androstenedione and testosterone.
It blocks the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone by inhibiting the enzyme P450scc and consequently decreases synthesis of all hormonally active steroids.
Side effects
Its side effects are skin rash, hepatotoxicity, inhibition of cortisol in the human body, and it may also cause hypothyroidism.Since cortisol helps break down muscle, aminoglutethimide is used by bodybuilders in a steroid cycle.
Clinical uses
Aminoglutethimide is indicated in conjunction with other drugs for the suppression of adrenal function in patients with Cushing's syndrome.
It is also a 2nd or 3rd line choice for the treatment of hormone sensitive (estrogen and progesterone) metastatic breast cancer.
Abuse
Aminoglutethimide is abused by body builders and other steroid users to lower circulating levels of cortisol in the body and prevent muscle loss. Cortisol is catabolic to protein in muscle and effective blockade of P450scc by aminogluthethimide at high doses prevents muscle loss
b. Metyrapone (Metopirone) is a drug used in the diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency and occasionally in the treatment of Cushing's syndrome (hypercortisolism).
Metyrapone blocks cortisol synthesis by inhibiting steroid 11β-hydroxylase. This stimulates ACTH secretion, which in turn increases plasma 11-deoxycortisol levels. When excess ACTH secretion is the cause of hypercortisolism, the metyrapone test helps clarify if the source of the ACTH is pituitary or ectopic (non-pituitary
Uses
Metyrapone can be used in the diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency. Metyrapone 30mg/kg, maximum dose 3000 mg, is administered at midnight usually with a snack. The plasma cortisol and 11-deoxycortisol are measured the next morning between 8:00 and 9:00 am. A plasma cortisol less than 220nmol/l indicates adequate inhibition of 11β-hydroxylase. In patients with intact Hypothamalmo-pituitary-adrenal axis, CRH and ACTH levels rise as a response to the falling cortisol levels. This results in an increase of the steroid precursors in the pathway. Therefore if 11-deoxycortisol levels do not rise and remains less than 7 mcg/dl then it is highly suggestive of impaired HPA axis.Metyrapone test may aid in verifying the cause of Cushing's syndrome. Most patients with pituitary dysfunction and/or pituitary microadenoma will increase ACTH secretion in response to metyrapone, while most ectopic ACTH-producing tumors will not. Pituitary macroadenomas do not always respond to metyrapone.
c.Mitotane, is a medication used in the treatment of the adrenocortical carcinoma.Mitotane alters steroid peripheral metabolism, directly suppresses the adrenal cortex and alters cortisone metabolism leading to hypocortisolism. Side effects include anorexia and nausea (88%), diarrhea (38%), vomiting (23%), decreased memory and ability to concentrate (50%), rash (23%), gynecomastia (50%), arthralgia (19%), and leukopenia (7%).
d.mirapex [ that’s the trade name for Pramipexole! And man are u expected to know that?] Pramipexole is used for treatment of Parkinsonism and paralysis agitans.
45. Best for diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism is:
a. Elevated TSH !
b. Reduced TSH
c. Reduced T4 and T3
d. Elevated TRH
46. sibutramine is used in
a. Obesity With BMI 30-35!
b. Obesity with BMI 35-40
c. Pre- obesity
d. Weight gain on patient of hypothyroidism
47. catecholamine maximum secreted in phaeochromocytoma is :
a. nor epinephrine!
b. epi nephrine
c. serotonin
d. 5 HT derivatives
48. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is seen with
a. Lipoid nephrosis
b. finnish variety of nephrotic syndrome
c. Diabetes mellitus!
d. IgA nepgropathy
49. After splenectomy infection not seen is
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Gonococcus
c. H. influenzae
d. klebsiella!
50. Nosocomial infection can be best reduced by
a. Hand washing
b. Antibiotics determined by culture sensitivity
c. GM –CSF administration
d. Face masks and good air flow!
51. Serum alkaline phosphatase SAP is increased in all except:
a. Multiple myeloma!
b. Rickets
c. hypoparathyrodism
d. osteomalacia
52. Sequence of changes in tips of fingers in Raynauds phenomenon is:
a. white –blue –red!
b. white –red- blue
c. red –blue white
d. blue- white red
53. All occur in heat stroke except:
a. Loss of conciousness
b. Hyperthermia
c. Muscle cramps
d. Sweating!
54. Best for diagnosis of diabetic nephropathy is
a. Urine micro-albuminemia
b. Renal biopsy!
c. DMSA scan
d. Glycosylated hemoglobin
55. Atrophy of adrenal gland will cause levels of which hormone to decrease
a. ACTH
b. Prolactin
c. CRH!
d. TRH
GIT
:
56. Heller’s myotomy is best suited for
a. achalsia cardia!
b. GERD
c. Nutcracker esophagus
d. Barret esophagus
57. Bleeding esophageal varices are best treated by:
a. octreotide!
b. vsopressin
c. somatostatinAVP
Monday, October 26, 2009
MCI MARCH 2009 exam questions
Anatomy
1) Nerve supply to hypothenar muscles - ulnar, median, radial, musculocutaneous
2) The ligament which transfers weight of arm to the trunk - costoclavicular, coracoclavicular, acromioclavicular,
3) Not present at the level of pylorus - L1 vertebra, right suprarenal gland, tip of ninth cartilage, fundus of gallbladder
4) True about ureter - crosses behind bifurcation of common iliac artery, pelvic part is 20cm, uterine artery crosses in front, lined by cuboidal epithelium
5) The nerve that is not injured during surgery of submandibular region - hypoglossal, facial, lingual, glossopharyngeal
6) Parotid duct opens opposite to - upper 1st molar, upper 2nd molar, upper 2nd premolar, upper 1st premolar
7) Common location of cirsoid aneurysm - external carotid, internal carotid, superficial temporal, occipital
8 ) Cross section of superior colliculus at the level of brain stem shows - Red nucleus, Rednucleus and Abducent nerve, Red nucleus and optic nerve
9) Function of superior oblique - a)intortion, adduction &depression b)intortion, abduction and elevation c) intortion, abduction and depression d) extortion, abduction and depression
10) Nerve commonly involved in Gullain Barre syndrome - facial, optic, oculomotor, trochlear
11) Safety muscle of tongue - styloglossus, genioglossus, palatoglossus
12) Nerve supply to angle of mandible - mandibular, facial, hypoglossal
13) Spinal part of accesory nerve supplies - sternocleidomastoid, deltoid,
14) Primary auditory area - inferior temporal gyrus, supratemporal plane of superior temporal gyrus
15) A lesion involving right upper motor neuron of facial nerve causes paralysis of - right lower facial muscles, left lower facial muscles, all facial muscles on right side
16) Optic nerve is - 1st order neuron, 2nd order neuron
17) SA node is supplied by - left anterior descending coronary artery, right coronary artery,
18 ) Muscle that is most commonly used for grafting - sartorius, gracilis, plantaris,
19) Urinary bladder trigone develops from - mesoderm, endoderm of urachus, ectoderm,
20) Which of the following doesn’t drain into coronary sinus – great cardiac vein, small cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, anterior cardiac vein
21) Something related to fossa ovalis – septum primum, crescentic SA fold, septum secundum
Physiology
22) Heat stimulated sweating is mediated by - parasympathetic stimulation, cholinergic mediated sympathetic activity
23) Hagemann factor is involved in - extrinsic pathway, intrinsic pathway, fibrinolysis, none
24) When aPTT is prolonged factor not affected is - XII, XI, VII,I X
25) Strongest effect on vagal inhibition is seen in - stomach, intestine
26) Plasma makes - 5% of BW, 10% of BW, 15% of BW, 20% of BW
27) When light falls on retinal pigment epithelium - depolarisation occurs, repolarisation occurs, spike potential is generated
28 ) Maximum number of sodium channels per square inch is present in - dendrites, axonal body, schwann cells, myelin sheath
29) The cilia present in the inner ear moves - when perilymph moves, when moving person suddenly stops, when head is rotated
30) Erythropoietin is secreted by - extraglomerular mesangial cells, interstitial cells of kidney, macula densa, renal tubular epithelial cells
31) Maximum absorption of Na, K, Cl in proximal convoluted tubule occurs due to the effect of - angiotensin II, aldosterone
32) Role of cholesterol in cell wall - fluidity, hydrophobicity, thickness
33) Major contribution to plasma osmalality - Na, K, Cl, Mg
34) Mean Arterial Pressure is - arithmetic mean of sysolic and diastolic pressures, diastolic + 1/3rd of systolic, diastolic +1/3(SP-DP)
35) Which of the following is true - vital capacity increases in elderly, functional residual capacity accounts for 75% of total lung capacity
36) True about Iron absorption is – decreases following gastrojejunostomy, absorbed in distal ileum, decreases following jejunoileal resection
Biochemistry
37) Glutathione is - dipeptide, oligopeptide, tripeptide, polypeptide
38 ) To check clotting factors what is added to blood - EDTA, tricitrate, oxalate
39) Sodium fluoride added to blood inhibits - enolase, hexokinase
40) Decreased cyanocobalamin absorption not seen in - autoimmune gastritis, pernicious anemia, increased growth of intestinal bacteria, chronic pancraeatitis
41) Rate of absorption of iron regulated by - mucosal stores of iron, route of administration, preparation
42) Fatty acids are transported by - transthyretin, pre-albumin, albumin, ceruloplasmin
43) Western Blotting is done for identifying - DNA, RNA, Protein,
44) Prostaglandins are derived from – corticosteroids, arachidonic acid,
45) Structure of DNA is maintained by - alfa helix, beta pleated, Z finger, triple helix
46) Ketone bodies synthesised by - muscle, liver, kidney, brain
47) Insulin is required for glucose transport in - RBC, adipose tissue, muscles, intestine
48 ) Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase is - cytosolic enzyme, mitochondrial enzyme, lysosolic enzyme, all of the above
49) Reducing agent used in lipogenesis is derived from - Pentose phosphate pathway, TCA cycle, Glycolysis, Gluconeogenesis
50) The L or D form of a compound is determined by its relation to - glucose, fructose, glycogen, aldehyde
Microbiology
51) Peptidoglycans are found in large quantities in cell wall of - gram +ve bacteria, gram-vebacteria, fungi, virus
52) Bile stained eggs are found in - E.histolytica, Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichura, Ankylostoma duodenale
53) Sabin Fieldmann test is used to diagnose - Toxoplasma, Giardia lamblia
54) Most common cause of chronic meningitis - cryptococcus neoformans, histoplasma, blastomyces
55) Anaemia is caused by - Ascaris lumbricoides, Ankylostoma duodenale, Taenia saginata
56) Chinese letter arrangement is seen in - Corynebnacterium diphtheria, M.tuberculosis, M.leprae, Chlamydia trachomatis
57) Carriers for Herpes simplex is - Monkey, Man, both, none
58 ) When a virus enters human body, it is first encountered by – B lymphocyte, T lymphocyte, natural killer cells, cytotoxic T cells
Pathology
59) Ulcer transforms into carcinoma in - stomach, duodenum,
60) H.pylori causes - MALToma,
61) Starry sky pattern not seen in - Burkitts lymphoma, Non-Burkitts lymphoma, Lymphoplastic lymphoma
62) Not a precancerous condition - leukoplakia, erythroplakia, chronic hyperplastic candidiasis, lichen planus
63) Single best prognostic factor in Papillary carcinoma of thyroid - grading, metastasis, stage, age of patient
64) The organ that is first involved in acute transplant rejection – liver, kidney, skin, heart
65) Following circulatory shock which of the following occurs - acute paillary necrosis, acute tubular necrosis
66) Most common cause of hyperaldosteronism is - adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma
67) Amyloid deposits are seen in - space of disse, intrahepatic, portal tract
68 ) Tabes intestinalis is found in - tuberculosis, mesenteric cyst, syphilis,
69) Call exner bodies are seen in - yolk sac tumour, granulosa cell tumour, theca cell tumour
70) Lymph node of an AIDS patient shows - aggregation of antibodies,
71) Malignant transformation is common in – intradermal nevus, junctional nevus, blue nevus,
Pharmacology
72) Asthmatic paient with hypertension treatment - propanolol, metaprolol, timolol
73) Antiepileptic drug causing hyperkinesia in children - sodium valproate, phenytoin, carbamazepine
74) Not an antiretroviral drug - nevirapine, ganciclovir
75) Drug causing toxic optic retinopathy - pyrazinamide, chloroquine, ethambutol
76) Drug used orally for treating scabies - levamisole, ivermectin, chloroquine
77) Drug acting on cell wall of gram positive bacteria - gentamycin, ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, vancomycin
78 ) Patient on antitubercular treatment shows tuberculin (+)ve after 3months of treatment
next step would be - a) continue treatment, b) switch to category 2 treatment,
79) Ergot derivatives are used in all except - uterine contraction, vasoconstrictive disorders, migraine
80) Which of the following is true regarding 5-HT derivatives - cyproheptadine is 5-HT2A antagonist,
81) Which of the following is true regarding 5-HT derivatives - sumatriptan is 5-HT 1B/1D receptor mediated,
82) Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor - alcohol, methotrexate
83) Drugs used in the treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma - i) adriamycin, vincristine, dacramycin, bleomycin ii) adriamycin, vinblastin, dacramycin, bleomycin iii) adramycin, vinblastin, dacramycin, blyocin
84) Dosage of Dopamine in shock - 1mg/kg, 2mg/kg, 1microgram/kg, 2microgram/kg
85) Following bee-sting a boy develops angioedema and dyspnea, treatment of choice - s.c.adrenaline, i.v.adrenaline, i.v.corticosteroid, antihistamine
86) Role of corticosteroids in asthma - causes bronchodilation, decreases mucosal oedema by suppressing inflammatory response, mast cell stabilization
87) Leukotriene antagonists are very useful in - exercise induced asthma, occupational asthma, atopic asthma, acute asthmatic attack
88 ) Drug causing thrombocytopenia - aspirin, ticlopidine
89) Which of the following drug inhibits plasminogen without causing bleeding – streptokinase, alteplase, tranexamic acid, EACA
90) A pregnant lady is suffering from peptic ulcer.drug that is contraindicated is - omeprazole, ranitidine, misoprostol, famotidine
91) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is caused by – antipsychotics
92) Drug of choice in hypertensive emergency in a pregnant lady – sodium nitroprusside, hydralazine, ACE inhibitors, diuretics
ENT
93) Horner's syndrome is caused by - facial injury, nasopharyngeal carcinoma with metastasis
94) Rhinne's test most useful at - 10dB, 15dB, 20dB, 25dB,
95) Cauliflower ear seen in - hematoma, carcinoma, fungal infection
96) Young's operation done in - atrophic rhinitis, vasomotor rhinitis, antrachonal polyp, allergic rhinitis
97) Abductors of vocal cord - lateral arytenoid, posterior arytenoid, cricothyroid,
98 ) Most common cause of deafness in children less than 12yrs - CSOM, otosclerosis
Ophthalmology
99) Synchysis means- vitreous hemorrhage, vitreous detachment, liquefaction of vitreous,
100) Blue Sclera is not associated with - Marfan's syndrome, Buphthalmos, high myopia, exophthalmos
101) Most common tumor of conjuctiva - basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma
102) Most common cause of delayed healing in corneal ulcer - concretions, inappropriate treatment, malnutrition
103) Photoretinitis is caused by - Ultraviolet rays, infrared rays
104) Treatment for dendritic ulcer - acyclovir, bandaging
105) Treatment for perforated corneal ulcer - contact lens, conjuctival flap grafting, tissue adhesive glue
106) Streaked vessels are seen in - papillitis, papilledema,
107) Not seen in papilledema - swelling of optic disc, macular fanning, tortuous veins,
108) Lisch nodules are seen in - retinoblastoma, neuroblastoma, neurofibromatosis
109) Bitemporal hemianopia seen in lesion of - optic tract, optic nerve, optic chiasma
110) Most severe form of congenital cataract - unilateral cataract, bilateral cataract, zonular cataract
111) Early sign of recurrent herpes zoster - vesicles on eyelids, punctate keratitis,f ollicular keratitis, dendritic ulcer
112) Laser used in LASIK surgery - krypton, excimer, argon
113) Chorioretinitis is caused by - Toxoplasma, cryptococcosis
114) Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of - sorbitol, mannitol, glucose, fructose
115) Most common eye Pathology in Toxoplasmosis - cataract,uveitis, chorioretinitis, corneal ulcer
Forensic Medicine
116) Fracture of hyoid bone common in - hanging, strangulation, throttling, choking
117) "Coup de Soleil" means - heat stroke, heat burn, heat cramps
118) In death due to air embolism, the emboli can be located at – abdominal aorta, inferior venacava, right ventricle, circle of Willis
119) Not used for treating acute iron poisoning - Desferrioxamine, BAL
120) Cause of death in drowning - laryngospasm, vagal hyperactivity, pulmonary edema
121) Patient presented with blue line in gums, basophilic stippling. poisoning is due to - inorganic lead, organic lead, arsenic
122) Antidote for copper poisoning is – Desferrioxamine, BAL,
PSM
123) Mumps doesn't cause - encephalitis, hepatitis, orchitis, oophoritis
124) When milk is taken before meal which of the following element's absorption is decreased - iron, calcium, phosphorus
125) Sentinel surveilance is used to detect - missed cases, new cases,
126) Vitamin not present in breast milk - A, D, B, K
127) Child-Women ratio is the number of child per - 1000 women, 1000 married women, 1000 women in reproductive age, 1000 married women in reproductive age
128) The number of girls a women would bear if she passes through her reproductive age with the same fertility rate gives - net reproductive rate, gross reproductive rate, total fertility rate,fertility rate
129) Which of the following is true regarding vaccination of a newborn with HIV - regular vaccination, only killed vaccines, both live and killed vaccines, no vaccination
130) Which of the following is advocated to a HIV +ve pregnant mother during delivery - nevirapine to both mother and newborn, zidovudine to both mother and newborn, zidovudine to both mother and newborn, nevirapine and zidovudine to both mother and newborn
131) 1st symptom of vitamin A deficiency - bitot's spots, night blindness, conjuctival xerosis, corneal ulcer
132) Infective period of chickenpox is - 1 day before and 4 days after rash, 4 days before and 1 day after rash, only when scab falls, entire incubation period
133) WHO's classification of deafness of range 56-70dB - mild, moderate, moderately severe, severe
134) Denominator while calculating secondary attack rate following a person with a primary disease is - people in his home, people in his family, all contacts of the person,
135) India is in which part of demographic scale? - early expanding stage, late expanding stage, stationary, early declining
136) Used in ante-mortem diagnosis of rabies - negri bodies in saliva, negri bodies in corneal scrapping, immunofluorescence of corneal impressions, antirabies antibodies in blood
137) Not a part of management in grade 3 dog bite infected with rabies - wash with soap and water, administration of antirabies serum and vaccination, stitch the wound with antibiotic coverage, vaccination
138) A person developed vomitting 6 hrs after consuming milk. organism responsible for this is - Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus, Salmonella typhi
139) Human Development Index includes all except – literacy, IMR, income,
140) Sullivan’s index is used to measure – number of years lived without disability, IMR,
141) Which of the following regarding Clostridium is true - Clostridium botulinum infects open wound, Clostridium perfringes infects wound contaminated with soil, Clostridium perfringes causes food poisoning
142) Standard deviation is defined as - arithmetic mean, deviation of a value on both sides of the normal value,
143) 72, 75, 79, 72, 78, 82, 72, 70, 83, 72. out of the given values mode is - 79, 72, 75, 80
144) Which of the following can be reduced by double blinding - recall bias, interviewer's bias, selection bias, berkesonian bias
Medicine
145) Common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage - hypertension, aneurysm, rupture of bridging veins
146) Investigation of choice of subarachnoid hemorhage - lumbar puncture, CT, angiography
147) Most useful investigation of choice in pulmonary embolism - conventional angiography, CT angiography, MRI angiography, Ventilation perfusion mismatch
148) Investigation of choice for diagnosing lung sequestration - CTangiography, angiography, X-ray PA view
149) Increased plasma concentration of calcium is seeen in - rickets, osteomalacia, hyperparathyroidism
150) Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in all except - biliary cirrhosis, pregnancy, myocardial infarction,
151) Weight gain is seen in all except - insulinoma, diabetes mellitus, phaeochromocytoma
152) Not seen in cushing's syndrome - hypoglycemia,
153) Not seen in acromegaly – muscle hypertrophy, diabetes mellitus, enlarged sinus, increased heel pad thickness
154) Not true about congenital hypothyroidism - seen in 1:4000 live births, females more often affected than males, no signs at birth, occurs due to antibodies against thyroid peroxisomes
155) Preobesity is defined as BMI of - 18.5-25, 25-30, 35-40, 40-45
156) A lady presented with dyspnea and palpitations. on examination there was a non ejection click,next investigation is - angiography, echocardiography
157) Hypercalcemia is seen in - calcitonin hypersecretion, hyperparathyroidism,
158) Bone age corresponds to chronological age in - familial short stature, rickets, osteomalacia
159) An young man brought to casualty with history of hematemesis, mild splenomegaly on examination. cause of bleeding is - tumour, gastritis, oesophageal varices
160) Gum hyperplasia is seen in - AML, ALL, CML, CLL,
161) Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism - adenoma, hyperplasia, carcinoma
162) Renal artery stenosis is not seen in - atherosclerosis, polyarteritis nodosa, takayasu arteritis, marfan's syndrome
163) Most common joint involved in osteoarthritis in India - shoulder, hip, knee, ankle
164) Part of knee most commonly involved in osteoarthritis - medial, lateral, medial and lateral
165) Normal anionic gap is seen in - diarrhea, ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis,
166) Positive End Expiratory Pressure is useful in - COPD, ARDS, Aspirational pneumonia,
167) Pulsus alternans is seen in – constrictive pericarditis, LVF, RVF, pericardial effusion
168) Most common cause of death in a patient with chronic renal failure on dailysis - infection, respiratory failure, uraemia,
169) Argyll-Robertson pupil is seen in - Neurosyphilis,
170) CSF in Tb meningitis - i) increased glucose, decreased proteins, decreased lymphocytes ii)increased glucose, increased proteins, increased lymphocytes iii)decreased glucose, increased proteins, increased lymphocytes iv) decreased glucose, increased proteins, decreased lymphocytes
171) Not seen in hyponatremia - delusion, vomitting, anorexia, nausea
172) Sign seen in water intoxication -
173) Lung cavitation seen in - squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, asbestosis, silicosis
174) Most common occupational malignancy - skin, lung, bladder, breast
175) Regarding Austin-Flint murmur,false is - functional murmur, systolic murmur, aortic regurgitation,
176) Which of the following plays an important role in the treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis – bicarbonate, potassium, normal saline, insulin
Surgery
177) Which of the following causes orchitis without epidydimitis - TB, Gonorrhoea, Chlamydia trachomatis, Mumps
178) Drainage of venous blood from testes following varicocelectomy is through - pampiniform plexus, cremasteric vein, iliac vein, internal pudendal vein
179) Cause of dysphagia which is decreased for solids and increased for liquids - achalasia cardia, carcinoma of esophagus,
180) Carcinoma of tongue is most common in - lateral border, dorsum,
181) Not a contraindication for doing percutaneous liver biopsy - INR 1.5, hemangioma, biliary obstruction, portal hypertension
182) Cause of hematemesis in a patient with mild splenomegaly - Esophageal varices, gastritis,
183) Not a part of charcot's triad - intermittent pain, intermittent vomitting, intermittent fever, intermittent jaundice
184) Pentad of pain, fever, jaundice, confusion, shock seen in - cholecystitis, hepatitis, pancreatitis
185) Most common type of gallstone - combined, mixed, pigment, cholesterol
186) Not a complication of prostatic surgery in an elderly man - urinary retention, constipation, rupture of urethra, ejaculatory failure
187) Following urethral rupture immediate procedure to be done - rail tracking, suprapubic cystostomy, urinary catheterisation
188) Part of urethra most commonly injured following instrumentation - bulbous, prostatic, membranous
189) Not seen in 3rd degree burn - no vesicles, red colour, painful, loss of skin appendages
190) Cryoprecipitate contains - factor V, factor VIII, factor IX, factor II
191) Most common testicular tumour in 4th decade - seminoma, dermoid, teratoma,
192) Treatment for appendicular abscess - intraperitoneal drainage, extraperitoneal drainage, emergency appendicectomy, observation
193) Hypochloremic alkalosis seen in - achalasia cardia, congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, diarrhea
194) Most common congenital anomaly of face is - cleft lip alone, cleft lip and cleft palate, cleft palate
195) Positive Pressure Ventilation is useful in - pneumothorax, flail chest, hemothorax, hemopneumothorax
196) Which of the following plays a major role for the development of symptoms in dumping syndrome - hypoglycemia, glucagon, CCK,
197) According to "rule of 9's" burns involving perinium are - 01%, 27%, 18%, 9%
198) Erythroplasia of queyrat occurs in - glans penis, shaft of penis, base of penis, scrotum
Obstetrics
199) Pearl index is used to calculate - abortions, accidental pregnancies, fertility rate
200) Ultrasound in done in 1st trimester for all except - to estimate gestational age, to know the position of the placenta
201) Prolonged 1st stage of labour is not due to - CPD, weak uterine contractions, rigid perineum,
202) Most common form of multiple pregnancy - monochorionic monoamniotic, monochorionic diamniotic, dichorionic diamniotic, dichorionic monoamniotic
203) Largest fetal head diameter - occipitofrontal, submentovertical, mentovertical, subocccipitobregmatic
204) The distance from the upper end of sacrum to lower border of pubis corresponds to - obstetric conjugate, diagonal conjugate, true conjugate, transverse conjugate
205) Contraindication for applying forceps - CPD, crowning of head, head station +1, maternal cardiac disease
206) Not associated with twin pregnancy - atonic uterus, antepartum hemorrhage,
207) Fetal adrenals release predominantly - cortisone, aldosterone, testosterone, oestrogen
208) During pregnancy benign breast carcinoma undergoes - malignant change, red degeneration, fibrocalcinosis, metastasis
209) Bishop's score doesn't include - cervical length, cervical consistency, station of head, position of head
210) Contraindicated during labour - oxytocin, misoprostol, mifepristone,
211) Which one of the following i strue - Mariceau-Smellie-Veit technique is used to deliver the head in breech presentation,
Gynaecology
212) 18yr old girl presented with primary amenorrhea, normal breast development, absent pubic and axillary hair - testicular feminizing syndrome, turner syndrome, mullerian agenesis, premature ovarian failure
213) Not seen in anorexia nervosa - menorrhagia, weight loss,
214) Organism which grows at a pH of 4.5 - trichomanas vaginalis, candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, gonococcus
215) A female presented with white discharge and pruritus. aetiological agent - trichomonas vaginalis, candida albicans, gardnerella, gonococci
216) Not useful for diagnosis in a female of 55yrs presenting with postmenopausal bleeding - pap smear, endometrial biopsy, transvaginal USG, postcoital test
Paediatrics
217) Prelacteal feed given is - milk, water, honey, none
218) A child of 3 yrs is able to - draw a circle, rides bicycle, writes sentences,
Orthopaedics
219) Inability to adduct the thumb due to injury to the nerve - median, ulnar, radial,
220) Carpel tunnel syndrome due to - median nerve, ulnar nerve,
221) Most commonly used muscle for grafting - plantaris, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus
222) Waddling gait due to - congenital dysplasia of hip, valgus, CTEV, bilateral valgus, bilateral varus
223) Spondylysis common in - intervertebral disc, anterior part, pars intervertebralis, annulus
224) Tumour following radiation exposure - osteosarcoma, osteoblastoma, ewing's sarcoma
225) "Bone inside Bone" seen in - osteomalacia, osteopetrosis, rickets
226) Calaneo valgus occurs due to paralysis of - gastrosoleus, gastrosoleus and tibialis posterior,
227) Most common bone involved in fracture of face - nasal, nasoethmoid, zygomatic, mandible
228) Trendelenburg sign is +ve due to - gluteum maximus, gluteus medius, psoas major, adductor magnus
Dermatology
229) Nail deformity seen in lichen planus - pterygium, subungual keratosis, oncholysis, beau's lines
230) Albinism - autosomal recessive, autosomal dominant, X-linked recessive, X-linked dominant
231) Fungus which involves hair - microsporum, epidermophyton
232) Kerion is - viral infection, fungal infection, bacterial infection, parasitic infection
233) Nerve thickening with nodules on skin is present in which stage of leprosy - borderline lepromatous, tuberculoid, intermediate, borderline tubeculoid
234) Multiple lesions are present in - borderline lepromatous, borderline, borderline tubeculoid, tuberculoid
Radiology
235) Iodine 121 preferred than Iodine 131 because - emits beta rays, emits beta and gamma rays, longer half life
236) Harmful ray is - alpha, gamma, neutron, electron
237) Most radiosensitive cell is - neutrophil, lymphocyte, megakaryocyte,
238) Ultrasound finding seen in chronic renal disease - enlarged kidneys, shrunken kidney,
239) Some technique done via – transfemoral route, transbrachial route, transradial route
Anesthesiology
240) Site for external cardiac massage - lower 1/3rd of sternum, junction of body and manubrium sterni, xiphoid process
241) Most common complication following intubation - bleeding, malposition, sore throat
242) Most common complication following bag ventilation by anesthesist - respiratory alkalosis,
243) Regarding neuromuscular blockers which of the following is true - neostigmine reverses the effect of succinylcholine, atracurium is a depolarizing agent, something about pancuronium
Psychiatry
245) Most common type of schizophrenia - paranoid, simple, catatonic, disorganized
246) The term psychoanalysis was coined by -
247) Method of breaking bad news - burst, spread,spike
248) Modern classification of Psychiatry was done by -
1) Nerve supply to hypothenar muscles - ulnar, median, radial, musculocutaneous
2) The ligament which transfers weight of arm to the trunk - costoclavicular, coracoclavicular, acromioclavicular,
3) Not present at the level of pylorus - L1 vertebra, right suprarenal gland, tip of ninth cartilage, fundus of gallbladder
4) True about ureter - crosses behind bifurcation of common iliac artery, pelvic part is 20cm, uterine artery crosses in front, lined by cuboidal epithelium
5) The nerve that is not injured during surgery of submandibular region - hypoglossal, facial, lingual, glossopharyngeal
6) Parotid duct opens opposite to - upper 1st molar, upper 2nd molar, upper 2nd premolar, upper 1st premolar
7) Common location of cirsoid aneurysm - external carotid, internal carotid, superficial temporal, occipital
8 ) Cross section of superior colliculus at the level of brain stem shows - Red nucleus, Rednucleus and Abducent nerve, Red nucleus and optic nerve
9) Function of superior oblique - a)intortion, adduction &depression b)intortion, abduction and elevation c) intortion, abduction and depression d) extortion, abduction and depression
10) Nerve commonly involved in Gullain Barre syndrome - facial, optic, oculomotor, trochlear
11) Safety muscle of tongue - styloglossus, genioglossus, palatoglossus
12) Nerve supply to angle of mandible - mandibular, facial, hypoglossal
13) Spinal part of accesory nerve supplies - sternocleidomastoid, deltoid,
14) Primary auditory area - inferior temporal gyrus, supratemporal plane of superior temporal gyrus
15) A lesion involving right upper motor neuron of facial nerve causes paralysis of - right lower facial muscles, left lower facial muscles, all facial muscles on right side
16) Optic nerve is - 1st order neuron, 2nd order neuron
17) SA node is supplied by - left anterior descending coronary artery, right coronary artery,
18 ) Muscle that is most commonly used for grafting - sartorius, gracilis, plantaris,
19) Urinary bladder trigone develops from - mesoderm, endoderm of urachus, ectoderm,
20) Which of the following doesn’t drain into coronary sinus – great cardiac vein, small cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, anterior cardiac vein
21) Something related to fossa ovalis – septum primum, crescentic SA fold, septum secundum
Physiology
22) Heat stimulated sweating is mediated by - parasympathetic stimulation, cholinergic mediated sympathetic activity
23) Hagemann factor is involved in - extrinsic pathway, intrinsic pathway, fibrinolysis, none
24) When aPTT is prolonged factor not affected is - XII, XI, VII,I X
25) Strongest effect on vagal inhibition is seen in - stomach, intestine
26) Plasma makes - 5% of BW, 10% of BW, 15% of BW, 20% of BW
27) When light falls on retinal pigment epithelium - depolarisation occurs, repolarisation occurs, spike potential is generated
28 ) Maximum number of sodium channels per square inch is present in - dendrites, axonal body, schwann cells, myelin sheath
29) The cilia present in the inner ear moves - when perilymph moves, when moving person suddenly stops, when head is rotated
30) Erythropoietin is secreted by - extraglomerular mesangial cells, interstitial cells of kidney, macula densa, renal tubular epithelial cells
31) Maximum absorption of Na, K, Cl in proximal convoluted tubule occurs due to the effect of - angiotensin II, aldosterone
32) Role of cholesterol in cell wall - fluidity, hydrophobicity, thickness
33) Major contribution to plasma osmalality - Na, K, Cl, Mg
34) Mean Arterial Pressure is - arithmetic mean of sysolic and diastolic pressures, diastolic + 1/3rd of systolic, diastolic +1/3(SP-DP)
35) Which of the following is true - vital capacity increases in elderly, functional residual capacity accounts for 75% of total lung capacity
36) True about Iron absorption is – decreases following gastrojejunostomy, absorbed in distal ileum, decreases following jejunoileal resection
Biochemistry
37) Glutathione is - dipeptide, oligopeptide, tripeptide, polypeptide
38 ) To check clotting factors what is added to blood - EDTA, tricitrate, oxalate
39) Sodium fluoride added to blood inhibits - enolase, hexokinase
40) Decreased cyanocobalamin absorption not seen in - autoimmune gastritis, pernicious anemia, increased growth of intestinal bacteria, chronic pancraeatitis
41) Rate of absorption of iron regulated by - mucosal stores of iron, route of administration, preparation
42) Fatty acids are transported by - transthyretin, pre-albumin, albumin, ceruloplasmin
43) Western Blotting is done for identifying - DNA, RNA, Protein,
44) Prostaglandins are derived from – corticosteroids, arachidonic acid,
45) Structure of DNA is maintained by - alfa helix, beta pleated, Z finger, triple helix
46) Ketone bodies synthesised by - muscle, liver, kidney, brain
47) Insulin is required for glucose transport in - RBC, adipose tissue, muscles, intestine
48 ) Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase is - cytosolic enzyme, mitochondrial enzyme, lysosolic enzyme, all of the above
49) Reducing agent used in lipogenesis is derived from - Pentose phosphate pathway, TCA cycle, Glycolysis, Gluconeogenesis
50) The L or D form of a compound is determined by its relation to - glucose, fructose, glycogen, aldehyde
Microbiology
51) Peptidoglycans are found in large quantities in cell wall of - gram +ve bacteria, gram-vebacteria, fungi, virus
52) Bile stained eggs are found in - E.histolytica, Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichura, Ankylostoma duodenale
53) Sabin Fieldmann test is used to diagnose - Toxoplasma, Giardia lamblia
54) Most common cause of chronic meningitis - cryptococcus neoformans, histoplasma, blastomyces
55) Anaemia is caused by - Ascaris lumbricoides, Ankylostoma duodenale, Taenia saginata
56) Chinese letter arrangement is seen in - Corynebnacterium diphtheria, M.tuberculosis, M.leprae, Chlamydia trachomatis
57) Carriers for Herpes simplex is - Monkey, Man, both, none
58 ) When a virus enters human body, it is first encountered by – B lymphocyte, T lymphocyte, natural killer cells, cytotoxic T cells
Pathology
59) Ulcer transforms into carcinoma in - stomach, duodenum,
60) H.pylori causes - MALToma,
61) Starry sky pattern not seen in - Burkitts lymphoma, Non-Burkitts lymphoma, Lymphoplastic lymphoma
62) Not a precancerous condition - leukoplakia, erythroplakia, chronic hyperplastic candidiasis, lichen planus
63) Single best prognostic factor in Papillary carcinoma of thyroid - grading, metastasis, stage, age of patient
64) The organ that is first involved in acute transplant rejection – liver, kidney, skin, heart
65) Following circulatory shock which of the following occurs - acute paillary necrosis, acute tubular necrosis
66) Most common cause of hyperaldosteronism is - adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma
67) Amyloid deposits are seen in - space of disse, intrahepatic, portal tract
68 ) Tabes intestinalis is found in - tuberculosis, mesenteric cyst, syphilis,
69) Call exner bodies are seen in - yolk sac tumour, granulosa cell tumour, theca cell tumour
70) Lymph node of an AIDS patient shows - aggregation of antibodies,
71) Malignant transformation is common in – intradermal nevus, junctional nevus, blue nevus,
Pharmacology
72) Asthmatic paient with hypertension treatment - propanolol, metaprolol, timolol
73) Antiepileptic drug causing hyperkinesia in children - sodium valproate, phenytoin, carbamazepine
74) Not an antiretroviral drug - nevirapine, ganciclovir
75) Drug causing toxic optic retinopathy - pyrazinamide, chloroquine, ethambutol
76) Drug used orally for treating scabies - levamisole, ivermectin, chloroquine
77) Drug acting on cell wall of gram positive bacteria - gentamycin, ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, vancomycin
78 ) Patient on antitubercular treatment shows tuberculin (+)ve after 3months of treatment
next step would be - a) continue treatment, b) switch to category 2 treatment,
79) Ergot derivatives are used in all except - uterine contraction, vasoconstrictive disorders, migraine
80) Which of the following is true regarding 5-HT derivatives - cyproheptadine is 5-HT2A antagonist,
81) Which of the following is true regarding 5-HT derivatives - sumatriptan is 5-HT 1B/1D receptor mediated,
82) Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor - alcohol, methotrexate
83) Drugs used in the treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma - i) adriamycin, vincristine, dacramycin, bleomycin ii) adriamycin, vinblastin, dacramycin, bleomycin iii) adramycin, vinblastin, dacramycin, blyocin
84) Dosage of Dopamine in shock - 1mg/kg, 2mg/kg, 1microgram/kg, 2microgram/kg
85) Following bee-sting a boy develops angioedema and dyspnea, treatment of choice - s.c.adrenaline, i.v.adrenaline, i.v.corticosteroid, antihistamine
86) Role of corticosteroids in asthma - causes bronchodilation, decreases mucosal oedema by suppressing inflammatory response, mast cell stabilization
87) Leukotriene antagonists are very useful in - exercise induced asthma, occupational asthma, atopic asthma, acute asthmatic attack
88 ) Drug causing thrombocytopenia - aspirin, ticlopidine
89) Which of the following drug inhibits plasminogen without causing bleeding – streptokinase, alteplase, tranexamic acid, EACA
90) A pregnant lady is suffering from peptic ulcer.drug that is contraindicated is - omeprazole, ranitidine, misoprostol, famotidine
91) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is caused by – antipsychotics
92) Drug of choice in hypertensive emergency in a pregnant lady – sodium nitroprusside, hydralazine, ACE inhibitors, diuretics
ENT
93) Horner's syndrome is caused by - facial injury, nasopharyngeal carcinoma with metastasis
94) Rhinne's test most useful at - 10dB, 15dB, 20dB, 25dB,
95) Cauliflower ear seen in - hematoma, carcinoma, fungal infection
96) Young's operation done in - atrophic rhinitis, vasomotor rhinitis, antrachonal polyp, allergic rhinitis
97) Abductors of vocal cord - lateral arytenoid, posterior arytenoid, cricothyroid,
98 ) Most common cause of deafness in children less than 12yrs - CSOM, otosclerosis
Ophthalmology
99) Synchysis means- vitreous hemorrhage, vitreous detachment, liquefaction of vitreous,
100) Blue Sclera is not associated with - Marfan's syndrome, Buphthalmos, high myopia, exophthalmos
101) Most common tumor of conjuctiva - basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma
102) Most common cause of delayed healing in corneal ulcer - concretions, inappropriate treatment, malnutrition
103) Photoretinitis is caused by - Ultraviolet rays, infrared rays
104) Treatment for dendritic ulcer - acyclovir, bandaging
105) Treatment for perforated corneal ulcer - contact lens, conjuctival flap grafting, tissue adhesive glue
106) Streaked vessels are seen in - papillitis, papilledema,
107) Not seen in papilledema - swelling of optic disc, macular fanning, tortuous veins,
108) Lisch nodules are seen in - retinoblastoma, neuroblastoma, neurofibromatosis
109) Bitemporal hemianopia seen in lesion of - optic tract, optic nerve, optic chiasma
110) Most severe form of congenital cataract - unilateral cataract, bilateral cataract, zonular cataract
111) Early sign of recurrent herpes zoster - vesicles on eyelids, punctate keratitis,f ollicular keratitis, dendritic ulcer
112) Laser used in LASIK surgery - krypton, excimer, argon
113) Chorioretinitis is caused by - Toxoplasma, cryptococcosis
114) Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of - sorbitol, mannitol, glucose, fructose
115) Most common eye Pathology in Toxoplasmosis - cataract,uveitis, chorioretinitis, corneal ulcer
Forensic Medicine
116) Fracture of hyoid bone common in - hanging, strangulation, throttling, choking
117) "Coup de Soleil" means - heat stroke, heat burn, heat cramps
118) In death due to air embolism, the emboli can be located at – abdominal aorta, inferior venacava, right ventricle, circle of Willis
119) Not used for treating acute iron poisoning - Desferrioxamine, BAL
120) Cause of death in drowning - laryngospasm, vagal hyperactivity, pulmonary edema
121) Patient presented with blue line in gums, basophilic stippling. poisoning is due to - inorganic lead, organic lead, arsenic
122) Antidote for copper poisoning is – Desferrioxamine, BAL,
PSM
123) Mumps doesn't cause - encephalitis, hepatitis, orchitis, oophoritis
124) When milk is taken before meal which of the following element's absorption is decreased - iron, calcium, phosphorus
125) Sentinel surveilance is used to detect - missed cases, new cases,
126) Vitamin not present in breast milk - A, D, B, K
127) Child-Women ratio is the number of child per - 1000 women, 1000 married women, 1000 women in reproductive age, 1000 married women in reproductive age
128) The number of girls a women would bear if she passes through her reproductive age with the same fertility rate gives - net reproductive rate, gross reproductive rate, total fertility rate,fertility rate
129) Which of the following is true regarding vaccination of a newborn with HIV - regular vaccination, only killed vaccines, both live and killed vaccines, no vaccination
130) Which of the following is advocated to a HIV +ve pregnant mother during delivery - nevirapine to both mother and newborn, zidovudine to both mother and newborn, zidovudine to both mother and newborn, nevirapine and zidovudine to both mother and newborn
131) 1st symptom of vitamin A deficiency - bitot's spots, night blindness, conjuctival xerosis, corneal ulcer
132) Infective period of chickenpox is - 1 day before and 4 days after rash, 4 days before and 1 day after rash, only when scab falls, entire incubation period
133) WHO's classification of deafness of range 56-70dB - mild, moderate, moderately severe, severe
134) Denominator while calculating secondary attack rate following a person with a primary disease is - people in his home, people in his family, all contacts of the person,
135) India is in which part of demographic scale? - early expanding stage, late expanding stage, stationary, early declining
136) Used in ante-mortem diagnosis of rabies - negri bodies in saliva, negri bodies in corneal scrapping, immunofluorescence of corneal impressions, antirabies antibodies in blood
137) Not a part of management in grade 3 dog bite infected with rabies - wash with soap and water, administration of antirabies serum and vaccination, stitch the wound with antibiotic coverage, vaccination
138) A person developed vomitting 6 hrs after consuming milk. organism responsible for this is - Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus, Salmonella typhi
139) Human Development Index includes all except – literacy, IMR, income,
140) Sullivan’s index is used to measure – number of years lived without disability, IMR,
141) Which of the following regarding Clostridium is true - Clostridium botulinum infects open wound, Clostridium perfringes infects wound contaminated with soil, Clostridium perfringes causes food poisoning
142) Standard deviation is defined as - arithmetic mean, deviation of a value on both sides of the normal value,
143) 72, 75, 79, 72, 78, 82, 72, 70, 83, 72. out of the given values mode is - 79, 72, 75, 80
144) Which of the following can be reduced by double blinding - recall bias, interviewer's bias, selection bias, berkesonian bias
Medicine
145) Common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage - hypertension, aneurysm, rupture of bridging veins
146) Investigation of choice of subarachnoid hemorhage - lumbar puncture, CT, angiography
147) Most useful investigation of choice in pulmonary embolism - conventional angiography, CT angiography, MRI angiography, Ventilation perfusion mismatch
148) Investigation of choice for diagnosing lung sequestration - CTangiography, angiography, X-ray PA view
149) Increased plasma concentration of calcium is seeen in - rickets, osteomalacia, hyperparathyroidism
150) Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in all except - biliary cirrhosis, pregnancy, myocardial infarction,
151) Weight gain is seen in all except - insulinoma, diabetes mellitus, phaeochromocytoma
152) Not seen in cushing's syndrome - hypoglycemia,
153) Not seen in acromegaly – muscle hypertrophy, diabetes mellitus, enlarged sinus, increased heel pad thickness
154) Not true about congenital hypothyroidism - seen in 1:4000 live births, females more often affected than males, no signs at birth, occurs due to antibodies against thyroid peroxisomes
155) Preobesity is defined as BMI of - 18.5-25, 25-30, 35-40, 40-45
156) A lady presented with dyspnea and palpitations. on examination there was a non ejection click,next investigation is - angiography, echocardiography
157) Hypercalcemia is seen in - calcitonin hypersecretion, hyperparathyroidism,
158) Bone age corresponds to chronological age in - familial short stature, rickets, osteomalacia
159) An young man brought to casualty with history of hematemesis, mild splenomegaly on examination. cause of bleeding is - tumour, gastritis, oesophageal varices
160) Gum hyperplasia is seen in - AML, ALL, CML, CLL,
161) Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism - adenoma, hyperplasia, carcinoma
162) Renal artery stenosis is not seen in - atherosclerosis, polyarteritis nodosa, takayasu arteritis, marfan's syndrome
163) Most common joint involved in osteoarthritis in India - shoulder, hip, knee, ankle
164) Part of knee most commonly involved in osteoarthritis - medial, lateral, medial and lateral
165) Normal anionic gap is seen in - diarrhea, ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis,
166) Positive End Expiratory Pressure is useful in - COPD, ARDS, Aspirational pneumonia,
167) Pulsus alternans is seen in – constrictive pericarditis, LVF, RVF, pericardial effusion
168) Most common cause of death in a patient with chronic renal failure on dailysis - infection, respiratory failure, uraemia,
169) Argyll-Robertson pupil is seen in - Neurosyphilis,
170) CSF in Tb meningitis - i) increased glucose, decreased proteins, decreased lymphocytes ii)increased glucose, increased proteins, increased lymphocytes iii)decreased glucose, increased proteins, increased lymphocytes iv) decreased glucose, increased proteins, decreased lymphocytes
171) Not seen in hyponatremia - delusion, vomitting, anorexia, nausea
172) Sign seen in water intoxication -
173) Lung cavitation seen in - squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, asbestosis, silicosis
174) Most common occupational malignancy - skin, lung, bladder, breast
175) Regarding Austin-Flint murmur,false is - functional murmur, systolic murmur, aortic regurgitation,
176) Which of the following plays an important role in the treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis – bicarbonate, potassium, normal saline, insulin
Surgery
177) Which of the following causes orchitis without epidydimitis - TB, Gonorrhoea, Chlamydia trachomatis, Mumps
178) Drainage of venous blood from testes following varicocelectomy is through - pampiniform plexus, cremasteric vein, iliac vein, internal pudendal vein
179) Cause of dysphagia which is decreased for solids and increased for liquids - achalasia cardia, carcinoma of esophagus,
180) Carcinoma of tongue is most common in - lateral border, dorsum,
181) Not a contraindication for doing percutaneous liver biopsy - INR 1.5, hemangioma, biliary obstruction, portal hypertension
182) Cause of hematemesis in a patient with mild splenomegaly - Esophageal varices, gastritis,
183) Not a part of charcot's triad - intermittent pain, intermittent vomitting, intermittent fever, intermittent jaundice
184) Pentad of pain, fever, jaundice, confusion, shock seen in - cholecystitis, hepatitis, pancreatitis
185) Most common type of gallstone - combined, mixed, pigment, cholesterol
186) Not a complication of prostatic surgery in an elderly man - urinary retention, constipation, rupture of urethra, ejaculatory failure
187) Following urethral rupture immediate procedure to be done - rail tracking, suprapubic cystostomy, urinary catheterisation
188) Part of urethra most commonly injured following instrumentation - bulbous, prostatic, membranous
189) Not seen in 3rd degree burn - no vesicles, red colour, painful, loss of skin appendages
190) Cryoprecipitate contains - factor V, factor VIII, factor IX, factor II
191) Most common testicular tumour in 4th decade - seminoma, dermoid, teratoma,
192) Treatment for appendicular abscess - intraperitoneal drainage, extraperitoneal drainage, emergency appendicectomy, observation
193) Hypochloremic alkalosis seen in - achalasia cardia, congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, diarrhea
194) Most common congenital anomaly of face is - cleft lip alone, cleft lip and cleft palate, cleft palate
195) Positive Pressure Ventilation is useful in - pneumothorax, flail chest, hemothorax, hemopneumothorax
196) Which of the following plays a major role for the development of symptoms in dumping syndrome - hypoglycemia, glucagon, CCK,
197) According to "rule of 9's" burns involving perinium are - 01%, 27%, 18%, 9%
198) Erythroplasia of queyrat occurs in - glans penis, shaft of penis, base of penis, scrotum
Obstetrics
199) Pearl index is used to calculate - abortions, accidental pregnancies, fertility rate
200) Ultrasound in done in 1st trimester for all except - to estimate gestational age, to know the position of the placenta
201) Prolonged 1st stage of labour is not due to - CPD, weak uterine contractions, rigid perineum,
202) Most common form of multiple pregnancy - monochorionic monoamniotic, monochorionic diamniotic, dichorionic diamniotic, dichorionic monoamniotic
203) Largest fetal head diameter - occipitofrontal, submentovertical, mentovertical, subocccipitobregmatic
204) The distance from the upper end of sacrum to lower border of pubis corresponds to - obstetric conjugate, diagonal conjugate, true conjugate, transverse conjugate
205) Contraindication for applying forceps - CPD, crowning of head, head station +1, maternal cardiac disease
206) Not associated with twin pregnancy - atonic uterus, antepartum hemorrhage,
207) Fetal adrenals release predominantly - cortisone, aldosterone, testosterone, oestrogen
208) During pregnancy benign breast carcinoma undergoes - malignant change, red degeneration, fibrocalcinosis, metastasis
209) Bishop's score doesn't include - cervical length, cervical consistency, station of head, position of head
210) Contraindicated during labour - oxytocin, misoprostol, mifepristone,
211) Which one of the following i strue - Mariceau-Smellie-Veit technique is used to deliver the head in breech presentation,
Gynaecology
212) 18yr old girl presented with primary amenorrhea, normal breast development, absent pubic and axillary hair - testicular feminizing syndrome, turner syndrome, mullerian agenesis, premature ovarian failure
213) Not seen in anorexia nervosa - menorrhagia, weight loss,
214) Organism which grows at a pH of 4.5 - trichomanas vaginalis, candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, gonococcus
215) A female presented with white discharge and pruritus. aetiological agent - trichomonas vaginalis, candida albicans, gardnerella, gonococci
216) Not useful for diagnosis in a female of 55yrs presenting with postmenopausal bleeding - pap smear, endometrial biopsy, transvaginal USG, postcoital test
Paediatrics
217) Prelacteal feed given is - milk, water, honey, none
218) A child of 3 yrs is able to - draw a circle, rides bicycle, writes sentences,
Orthopaedics
219) Inability to adduct the thumb due to injury to the nerve - median, ulnar, radial,
220) Carpel tunnel syndrome due to - median nerve, ulnar nerve,
221) Most commonly used muscle for grafting - plantaris, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus
222) Waddling gait due to - congenital dysplasia of hip, valgus, CTEV, bilateral valgus, bilateral varus
223) Spondylysis common in - intervertebral disc, anterior part, pars intervertebralis, annulus
224) Tumour following radiation exposure - osteosarcoma, osteoblastoma, ewing's sarcoma
225) "Bone inside Bone" seen in - osteomalacia, osteopetrosis, rickets
226) Calaneo valgus occurs due to paralysis of - gastrosoleus, gastrosoleus and tibialis posterior,
227) Most common bone involved in fracture of face - nasal, nasoethmoid, zygomatic, mandible
228) Trendelenburg sign is +ve due to - gluteum maximus, gluteus medius, psoas major, adductor magnus
Dermatology
229) Nail deformity seen in lichen planus - pterygium, subungual keratosis, oncholysis, beau's lines
230) Albinism - autosomal recessive, autosomal dominant, X-linked recessive, X-linked dominant
231) Fungus which involves hair - microsporum, epidermophyton
232) Kerion is - viral infection, fungal infection, bacterial infection, parasitic infection
233) Nerve thickening with nodules on skin is present in which stage of leprosy - borderline lepromatous, tuberculoid, intermediate, borderline tubeculoid
234) Multiple lesions are present in - borderline lepromatous, borderline, borderline tubeculoid, tuberculoid
Radiology
235) Iodine 121 preferred than Iodine 131 because - emits beta rays, emits beta and gamma rays, longer half life
236) Harmful ray is - alpha, gamma, neutron, electron
237) Most radiosensitive cell is - neutrophil, lymphocyte, megakaryocyte,
238) Ultrasound finding seen in chronic renal disease - enlarged kidneys, shrunken kidney,
239) Some technique done via – transfemoral route, transbrachial route, transradial route
Anesthesiology
240) Site for external cardiac massage - lower 1/3rd of sternum, junction of body and manubrium sterni, xiphoid process
241) Most common complication following intubation - bleeding, malposition, sore throat
242) Most common complication following bag ventilation by anesthesist - respiratory alkalosis,
243) Regarding neuromuscular blockers which of the following is true - neostigmine reverses the effect of succinylcholine, atracurium is a depolarizing agent, something about pancuronium
Psychiatry
245) Most common type of schizophrenia - paranoid, simple, catatonic, disorganized
246) The term psychoanalysis was coined by -
247) Method of breaking bad news - burst, spread,spike
248) Modern classification of Psychiatry was done by -
Sunday, May 31, 2009
DIAMS starts free online test on the website
WWW.diamsonline.org, the URL that is to be pasted in your browser to get a first hand glimpse of your preparation for the examination. the answers to the questions are checked from standard textbooks by the faculty and uploaded after a double check to provide first rate information about the kinda questions that are anticipated. Keep the tempo!
Monday, May 18, 2009
MCI verifies via biometric system
latest news states that MCI is gonna use video recording and biometric records for getting rid of the impersonators. the drive is petty aggressive and beware no games at all with these guys as they mean buisness.
In a nut shell study all the subjects and train HARD as the terrain is tough!!!
Thursday, May 7, 2009
DIAMS LANDS IN SHANGHAI
the premier coaching magnate DIAMS - is here in china for solving all ur queries realted to MCI screening
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