MCI 2011

MCI MARCH 2011

PHARMACOLOGY
1. All of the above are used for the management of thyrotoxic crisis except
a. Propylthiourcil
b. Propanolol
c. Oral potassium iodine
d. Levothyroxine *

2. Which of the following drugs is avoided in a patient with serum creatinine of more than 3mg/dl?
a. Gentamicin*
b. Azithromycine
c. Ampicilin
d. Amlodipine

3. Which of the following is NOT an inotropic drug?
a. Amrinone*
b. Isoprenaline
c. Amiodarone
d. Dopamine

4. Baclofen is used in the treatment of
a. Schizophrenia
b. Depression
c. Anxiety
d. Spasticity*

5. Which of the following is used for prophylaxis of rheumatic heart disease?
a. Ampicillin
b. Penicillin-G
c. Bezathine Penicillin*
d. Phenoxy-methyl penicillin

6. Dopamine is preferred over vasopressor agents in shock with oligouria because of its effects related to
a. Better cardiac stimulation
b. Less peripheral vasoconstriction*
c. Lower risk of cardiac arrhythmias
d. More CNS stimulation

7. The treatment of choice of bacterial vaginosis is
a. Clindamycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Ampicillin
d. Metronidazole*

8. The antidote for paracetamol poisoning is
a. Activated charcoal
b. N-acetyl cysteine*
c. Adrenaline
d. Magnesium hydroxide gel

9. all of the following therapeutic uses of corticosteroids are appropriate except
a. beclomethasone in bronchial asthma
b. cortisone for Cushing’s syndrome*
c. prednisolone for rheumatoid arthritis
d. dexamethasone for reducing intracranial pressure

10. Major organ involved in Bleomycin toxicity is
a. Liver
b. Bone marrow
c. Skin
d. Lungs*

11. sulfasalazine is used in
a. ulcerative colitis*
b. osteoarthritis
c. gouty arthritis
d. irritable bowel syndrome

12. Methotrexate toxicity can be treated by
a. Folic acid*
b. Folinic acid
c. Riboflavin
d. Cyanocabalamine

13. In a patient of chronic open glaucoma, which one of the following drugs is NOT useful
a. Pilocarpine
b. Physostigmine
c. Homatropine*
d. Timolol

14. Which one of the following is an adverse effect associated with combined oral contraceptives
a. Cerebral stroke*
b. Aggravation of asthma
c. Peripheral neuropathy
d. Nephritic syndrome

15. All of the following are the feature of atropine poisoning except
a. Mydriasis
b. Hallucinations
c. Hypothermia*
d. Coma

16. All of the following drugs should be avoided in pregnancy except
a. Propylthiouracil*
b. Valproic acid
c. Warfarin
d. Tetracyclines

17. All of the following statements about heparine are true EXCEPT
a. It act by inhibiting factor IIa via its action on anti thrombin III
b. Protamine sulphate is antidote
c. aPTT is used to monitor its effect
d. It has only in vivo anticoagulant action*

18. Allopurinol is a competitive inhibitor of
a. Uricase
b. Xanthine oxidase*
c. Guanase
d. Adenosine deaminase

19. Drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures is
a. Phenytoin
b. Valproate*
c. Ethosuximide
d. Carbamazepine

20. Scabies can be effectively treated systematically by
a. Psoralens
b. Ivermectin*
c. Permethrin
d. Septran

21. The antifungal which has a fungicidal mode of action against dermatophyte infections in therapeutic doses is
a. Fluconazole
b. Terbinafine*
c. Itraconazole
d. Ketoxonazole

22. pulmonary fibrosis is a side effect associated with the use of
a. actinomycin
b. busulfan*
c. doxorubicin
d. mithramycin

23. On a routine check up, a patient on warfarin therapy is found to have an international normalized ratio (INR) of 8. the most appropriate action is to stop the drug said
a. Give vitamin K injection
b. Give fresh frozen plasma infusion*
c. Start low molecular weight heparin
d. Restart warfarin after decrease of INR

24. The drug that is contraindicated in angle closure glaucoma is
a. Pilocarpine
b. Atropine*
c. Dorzolamide
d. Timolol

25. All of the following drugs can cause gynaecomastia except
a. Digoxin
b. Amiloride*
c. Cimetriden
d. Spironolactone

26. all of the following are useful in the management of acute asthma except
a. hydrocortisone intravenously
b. salbutamol inhalation
c. salmeterol inhalation*
d. terbutaline inhalation

27. Which of the following drugs have long post antibiotic effect?
a. Quinolones*
b. Macrolides
c. Tetracyclines
d. Oxazolidinones

28. All of the following are vitamin K dependent coagulation factors except
a. Factor VII
b. Factor VIII*
c. Factor X
d. Protein C


PATHOLOGY

29. The coagulation studies of a patient showed normal prothrombin time and prologation of activated partial thromboplastin tine and bleeding time. The most probable diagnosis is
a. Hemophilia
b. DIC
c. von Willebrand disease*
d. ITP

30. EAV rosetters formation is a characteristic of
a. T cells*
b. B cells
c. Monocytes
d. None of the above

31. Which of the following is NOT a prion associated disease
a. Scrapine
b. Kuru
c. Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease
d. Sub acute sclerozing panencephalitis (SSPE)*

32. Bilateral breast carcinoma occurs commonly in
a. Schirrous carcinoma
b. Medullary carcinoma
c. Colloid carcinoma
d. Lobular carcinoma*

33. The most important prognostic factor for invasive carcinoma of breast is
a. Histological subtype
b. Tumor grade
c. Estrogen and progesterone receptor status
d. Axillary lymph node status*

34. Which is the commonest type of cancer seen in patients wit AIDS?
a. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
b. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
c. Hairy cell leukemia
d. Kaposi sarcoma*

35. all of the following are features of secondary immune response except
a. abundant IgG
b. May be induced any time after primary response
c. Repeatable in physiological limits
d. Latent period of five days before it appears*

36. father to son inheritances is never seen in cases of
a. autosomal dominant inheritance
b. autosomal recessive inheritance
c. multifactorial inheritance
d. X-linked dominant inheritance *

37. The tumor Which is least likely to metastasize to the brain is
a. Prostatic carcinoma*
b. Breast carcinoma
c. Renal cell carcinoma
d. Choriocarcinoma

38. tumor marker for endodermal sinus tumor is
a. CEA
b. hCG
c. Alpha fetoprotein*
d. Cytokeratin

39. Carcinoma of the urinary bladder is associated with all of the following except
a. Cigarette smoking
b. Alcohol intake*
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Schistosomiasis

40. Which mediator of inflammation does NOT cause fever
a. IL-1
b. TNF-a
c. Nitric Oxide*
d. Prostaglandin

41. The characteristic abnormality in B-Thalassemia minor is
a. Raised HbA2 level*
b. Marked rise of HbF
c. Very high red cell distribution width (RDW)
d. Severe anemia

42. The tumor which has a predilection for ephiphyses is
a. Chondroblastoma*
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Osteochodnroma
d. Ewing’s sarcoma

43. Regarding panacinar emphysema, which of the following is true?
a. Involves the entire lung
b. Is most severe in apical region
c. Is associated with a1-antitrypine deficiency*
d. Is almost invariably related to scarring

44. Which of the following is NOT true of fibroadenoma?
a. Painless
b. Well circumscribed
c. It is almost always unilateral*
d. Hormone responsive

45. all of the following results in microcytic hypochromic anemia except
a. fanconi’s anemia*
b. iron deficiency
c. thalassemia
d. lead poisoning

46. all of the following are features of hemolytic anemia except
a. unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
b. reticulocytosis
c. increased plasma hapten*
d. hemoglobinuria


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