Respiratory system
1. Muscles involved in quiet breathing:
a. Diaphragm alone
b. Diaphragm with external intercostals!
c. Diaphragm with internal intercostals
d. Diaphragm with scalaneus anterior
2. Rapid shallow breathing is seen with:
a. Asthma!
b. ILD
c. Pneumonia
d. Brochiectasis
3. Not seen in legionarre disease
a. Dry cough
b. Fever
c. Diarrhea
d. Mental confusion!
4. Apical lung cancer can cause:
a. horner syndrome!
b. SVC syndrome
c. Caplan syndrome
d. Felty syndrome
5. Type 2 respiratory failure is seen with:
a. COPD!
b. Fracture Rib
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Bronchiectasis
6. Anti tobacco day:
a. 31st may!
b. 31st august
c. 31st September
d. 31st December
7. bupripion acts by:
a. Inhibiting nor –epinephrine /dopamine uptake and reduces craving!
b. Inhibits serotonin and reduced withdrawl symptoms of smoking
c. Inhibits Ach levels
d. Inhibits choline acyl transferase.
8. Type 3 respiratory failure which is difficult:
a. Walking 100 metres!
b. Use bathroom
c. Get up from the bed
d. All of above
9. felty syndrome is associated with
a. Rheumatoid arthritis!
b. SLE
c. Sarcoiudosis
d. Hamman rich syndrome
10. 100%oxygen will not improve cyanosis in
a. TOF!
b. Pneumonia
c. Shock
d. Pulmonary edema
11. ECG change in pulmonary embolism
a. S1Q3T3!
b. Sinus bradycardia
c. T wave inversion
d. Tall T waves in V5-V6
12. Preferred Ventilation modality for pulmonary edema:
a. CPAP!
b. IPPV
c. ACMV
d. PSV
13. Best diagnosis for Brochiectasis
a. HRCT!
b. Bronchoscopy flexible
c. Bronchoscopy rigid
d. MRI
14. When both vagi are cut, what happens to respiration:
a. Fast and shallow
b. Fast and deep
c. Slow and deep
d. Slow and shallow
15. PO2/ FiO2 ratio in ARDS is less than
a. 500
b. 400
c. 300
d. 200!
16. Dyspnea at rest is which grade by classification:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4!
17. For minmal pleural efffussion diagnosis by CXR, pleural fluid amount is:
a. 50ml!
b. 150ml
c. 200ml
d. 250ml
18. SVC syndrome is caused by:
a. Ca lung!
b. Lymphoma
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Silicosis
19. Acute asthma can be best treated by:
a. Steroids
b. leukotriene modifiers
c. ketotifen
d. salbutamol.!
Hematology
20. auer rods are seen in which variety of AML
a. M3!
b. M4
c. M5
d. M6
21. Decreased osmotic fragility is seen in:
a. Hereditary spherocytosis
b. Sickle cell anemia!
c. thalassemia
d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
22. False about tumor lysis syndrome is
a. hypercalcemia!
b. hyperphosphtemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. hyperuricemia
23. All are true about heparin except:
a. Anti-dote is protamine sulfate
b. Increased activity of anti-thrombin
c. Can only be given in –vivo!
d. Inhibits conversion of activated factor X
24. Characteristic of chediak hegashi syndrome is all except:
a. Defective phagocytosis!
b. Life threatening bacterial infections with staph aureus
c. Oculo cutaneous albinism
d. Lysosomal storage disorder
25. Not a complicatin of blood transfusion except:
a. Citrate poisoning
b. hypocalcemia
c. hypomagnesemia
d. Hypokalemia!
26. Defect in Di-george syndrome is:
a. Defective cell mediated immunity!
b. hypocalcemia
c. Thymus hypoplasia
d. Agammaglobulinemia
27. Not seen with hogkins lymphoma
a. B cell lineage
b. Contigous spread to lymph nodes
c. Chemotherapy for stage 2A!
d. Associated with EBV
Cardiovascular
28. CVP cathrether is ideally placed at
a. SVC
b. RA !
c. SVC and RA
d. Subclavian vein
29. Coronary predominance is determined by
a. Vessel feeding post descending artery!
b. Vessel feeding left circumflex artery
c. sinu atrail artery
d. Vessel feeding LAD
30. Austin flint murmur is seen in:
a. AR!
b. AS
c. MR
d. MS
31. Postural hypotension is defined as
a. Fall in BP exceeding 20/10 mm Hg on change of posture/table tilt test!
b. Fall in BP exceeding 40/20 mmHg on change of posture
c. Any fluctuation of BP on change of posture that causes dizziness/syncope
d. Fall in only SBP more than 20 mg Hg on change of posture
32. Sustained VT is best managed by
a. CCB
b. digoxin
c. Adenosine
d. lignocaine!
Central nervous system
33. acetycholine receptors at neuro-muscular end plate is reduced in
a. Myasthenia Gravis!
b. Lambert Eaton syndrome
c. Hyokalemic periodic paralysis
d. Spino-cerebellar ataxia
34. Correct about prions is:
a. misfolded cellular proteins!
b. Smallest living particle with nucleic acid
c. EEG shows 3/sec spike and slow wave on EEG
d. Not demons ratable on brain biopsy
35. sumatriptan is
a. 5HT antagonist used for acute migraine!
b. 5HT agonist used for opthalmoplegic migraine
c. NE uptake inhibitor used for recurrent attacks of migraine prophylaxis
d. Dopamine uptake inhibitor used for migraine attacks
36. Most common cause of meningitis in adults is
a. Strept pneumoniae!
b. Neisseria meningitis
c. Hemophilus influenzae
d. Listeria monocytogenes
37. kernig sign is seen in
a. Acute bacterial meningitis!
b. Encephalitis
c. Viral meningitis
d. All of above
38. Chronic meningitis is seen with
a. crytococcosis
b. C. jejuni
c. TB!
d. arboviruses
39. In duchenne muscular dystrophy the muscles mainly affected are
a. truncal muscles
b. Shoulder girdle muscles
c. Lower limb proximal muscles!
d. Lower limb distal muscles
Fluids and electrolytes
40. Delirium and worsening of neurological status in patient of TURP is due to
a. Water intoxication!
b. hypernatremia
c. Pontine myelinosis
d. hypomagnesemia
41. Normal anion gap is seen in
a. CRF
b. Methyl alcohol poisoning
c. Starvation
d. ureterosigmoidostomy!
42. ECG finding of Hypokalemia is
a. Elevated T wave
b. Inverted T wave!
c. Normal T wave
d. Bified T wave
Endocrinology
43. Most common cause of hypothyroidism is India
a. Iodine deficieny!
b. riedel thyroidits
c. hashimoto thyroiditis
d. Drug induced
44. Medical adrenalectomy is done with
a. aminogluthemide!
b. mitotane
c. Meta-pyrone
d. mirapex
a.Aminoglutethimide is an anti-steroid drug, It blocks the production of steroids derived from cholesterol and is clinically used in the treatment of Cushing's syndrome and metastatic breast cancer. It is also a drug of abuse by body builders.
Aminoglutethimide has a two mechanisms of action:
It blocks aromatase[2] in the generation of estrogens from androstenedione and testosterone.
It blocks the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone by inhibiting the enzyme P450scc and consequently decreases synthesis of all hormonally active steroids.
Side effects
Its side effects are skin rash, hepatotoxicity, inhibition of cortisol in the human body, and it may also cause hypothyroidism.Since cortisol helps break down muscle, aminoglutethimide is used by bodybuilders in a steroid cycle.
Clinical uses
Aminoglutethimide is indicated in conjunction with other drugs for the suppression of adrenal function in patients with Cushing's syndrome.
It is also a 2nd or 3rd line choice for the treatment of hormone sensitive (estrogen and progesterone) metastatic breast cancer.
Abuse
Aminoglutethimide is abused by body builders and other steroid users to lower circulating levels of cortisol in the body and prevent muscle loss. Cortisol is catabolic to protein in muscle and effective blockade of P450scc by aminogluthethimide at high doses prevents muscle loss
b. Metyrapone (Metopirone) is a drug used in the diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency and occasionally in the treatment of Cushing's syndrome (hypercortisolism).
Metyrapone blocks cortisol synthesis by inhibiting steroid 11β-hydroxylase. This stimulates ACTH secretion, which in turn increases plasma 11-deoxycortisol levels. When excess ACTH secretion is the cause of hypercortisolism, the metyrapone test helps clarify if the source of the ACTH is pituitary or ectopic (non-pituitary
Uses
Metyrapone can be used in the diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency. Metyrapone 30mg/kg, maximum dose 3000 mg, is administered at midnight usually with a snack. The plasma cortisol and 11-deoxycortisol are measured the next morning between 8:00 and 9:00 am. A plasma cortisol less than 220nmol/l indicates adequate inhibition of 11β-hydroxylase. In patients with intact Hypothamalmo-pituitary-adrenal axis, CRH and ACTH levels rise as a response to the falling cortisol levels. This results in an increase of the steroid precursors in the pathway. Therefore if 11-deoxycortisol levels do not rise and remains less than 7 mcg/dl then it is highly suggestive of impaired HPA axis.Metyrapone test may aid in verifying the cause of Cushing's syndrome. Most patients with pituitary dysfunction and/or pituitary microadenoma will increase ACTH secretion in response to metyrapone, while most ectopic ACTH-producing tumors will not. Pituitary macroadenomas do not always respond to metyrapone.
c.Mitotane, is a medication used in the treatment of the adrenocortical carcinoma.Mitotane alters steroid peripheral metabolism, directly suppresses the adrenal cortex and alters cortisone metabolism leading to hypocortisolism. Side effects include anorexia and nausea (88%), diarrhea (38%), vomiting (23%), decreased memory and ability to concentrate (50%), rash (23%), gynecomastia (50%), arthralgia (19%), and leukopenia (7%).
d.mirapex [ that’s the trade name for Pramipexole! And man are u expected to know that?] Pramipexole is used for treatment of Parkinsonism and paralysis agitans.
45. Best for diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism is:
a. Elevated TSH !
b. Reduced TSH
c. Reduced T4 and T3
d. Elevated TRH
46. sibutramine is used in
a. Obesity With BMI 30-35!
b. Obesity with BMI 35-40
c. Pre- obesity
d. Weight gain on patient of hypothyroidism
47. catecholamine maximum secreted in phaeochromocytoma is :
a. nor epinephrine!
b. epi nephrine
c. serotonin
d. 5 HT derivatives
48. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is seen with
a. Lipoid nephrosis
b. finnish variety of nephrotic syndrome
c. Diabetes mellitus!
d. IgA nepgropathy
49. After splenectomy infection not seen is
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Gonococcus
c. H. influenzae
d. klebsiella!
50. Nosocomial infection can be best reduced by
a. Hand washing
b. Antibiotics determined by culture sensitivity
c. GM –CSF administration
d. Face masks and good air flow!
51. Serum alkaline phosphatase SAP is increased in all except:
a. Multiple myeloma!
b. Rickets
c. hypoparathyrodism
d. osteomalacia
52. Sequence of changes in tips of fingers in Raynauds phenomenon is:
a. white –blue –red!
b. white –red- blue
c. red –blue white
d. blue- white red
53. All occur in heat stroke except:
a. Loss of conciousness
b. Hyperthermia
c. Muscle cramps
d. Sweating!
54. Best for diagnosis of diabetic nephropathy is
a. Urine micro-albuminemia
b. Renal biopsy!
c. DMSA scan
d. Glycosylated hemoglobin
55. Atrophy of adrenal gland will cause levels of which hormone to decrease
a. ACTH
b. Prolactin
c. CRH!
d. TRH
GIT
:
56. Heller’s myotomy is best suited for
a. achalsia cardia!
b. GERD
c. Nutcracker esophagus
d. Barret esophagus
57. Bleeding esophageal varices are best treated by:
a. octreotide!
b. vsopressin
c. somatostatinAVP
Tuesday, December 1, 2009
Monday, October 26, 2009
MCI MARCH 2009 exam questions
Anatomy
1) Nerve supply to hypothenar muscles - ulnar, median, radial, musculocutaneous
2) The ligament which transfers weight of arm to the trunk - costoclavicular, coracoclavicular, acromioclavicular,
3) Not present at the level of pylorus - L1 vertebra, right suprarenal gland, tip of ninth cartilage, fundus of gallbladder
4) True about ureter - crosses behind bifurcation of common iliac artery, pelvic part is 20cm, uterine artery crosses in front, lined by cuboidal epithelium
5) The nerve that is not injured during surgery of submandibular region - hypoglossal, facial, lingual, glossopharyngeal
6) Parotid duct opens opposite to - upper 1st molar, upper 2nd molar, upper 2nd premolar, upper 1st premolar
7) Common location of cirsoid aneurysm - external carotid, internal carotid, superficial temporal, occipital
8 ) Cross section of superior colliculus at the level of brain stem shows - Red nucleus, Rednucleus and Abducent nerve, Red nucleus and optic nerve
9) Function of superior oblique - a)intortion, adduction &depression b)intortion, abduction and elevation c) intortion, abduction and depression d) extortion, abduction and depression
10) Nerve commonly involved in Gullain Barre syndrome - facial, optic, oculomotor, trochlear
11) Safety muscle of tongue - styloglossus, genioglossus, palatoglossus
12) Nerve supply to angle of mandible - mandibular, facial, hypoglossal
13) Spinal part of accesory nerve supplies - sternocleidomastoid, deltoid,
14) Primary auditory area - inferior temporal gyrus, supratemporal plane of superior temporal gyrus
15) A lesion involving right upper motor neuron of facial nerve causes paralysis of - right lower facial muscles, left lower facial muscles, all facial muscles on right side
16) Optic nerve is - 1st order neuron, 2nd order neuron
17) SA node is supplied by - left anterior descending coronary artery, right coronary artery,
18 ) Muscle that is most commonly used for grafting - sartorius, gracilis, plantaris,
19) Urinary bladder trigone develops from - mesoderm, endoderm of urachus, ectoderm,
20) Which of the following doesn’t drain into coronary sinus – great cardiac vein, small cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, anterior cardiac vein
21) Something related to fossa ovalis – septum primum, crescentic SA fold, septum secundum
Physiology
22) Heat stimulated sweating is mediated by - parasympathetic stimulation, cholinergic mediated sympathetic activity
23) Hagemann factor is involved in - extrinsic pathway, intrinsic pathway, fibrinolysis, none
24) When aPTT is prolonged factor not affected is - XII, XI, VII,I X
25) Strongest effect on vagal inhibition is seen in - stomach, intestine
26) Plasma makes - 5% of BW, 10% of BW, 15% of BW, 20% of BW
27) When light falls on retinal pigment epithelium - depolarisation occurs, repolarisation occurs, spike potential is generated
28 ) Maximum number of sodium channels per square inch is present in - dendrites, axonal body, schwann cells, myelin sheath
29) The cilia present in the inner ear moves - when perilymph moves, when moving person suddenly stops, when head is rotated
30) Erythropoietin is secreted by - extraglomerular mesangial cells, interstitial cells of kidney, macula densa, renal tubular epithelial cells
31) Maximum absorption of Na, K, Cl in proximal convoluted tubule occurs due to the effect of - angiotensin II, aldosterone
32) Role of cholesterol in cell wall - fluidity, hydrophobicity, thickness
33) Major contribution to plasma osmalality - Na, K, Cl, Mg
34) Mean Arterial Pressure is - arithmetic mean of sysolic and diastolic pressures, diastolic + 1/3rd of systolic, diastolic +1/3(SP-DP)
35) Which of the following is true - vital capacity increases in elderly, functional residual capacity accounts for 75% of total lung capacity
36) True about Iron absorption is – decreases following gastrojejunostomy, absorbed in distal ileum, decreases following jejunoileal resection
Biochemistry
37) Glutathione is - dipeptide, oligopeptide, tripeptide, polypeptide
38 ) To check clotting factors what is added to blood - EDTA, tricitrate, oxalate
39) Sodium fluoride added to blood inhibits - enolase, hexokinase
40) Decreased cyanocobalamin absorption not seen in - autoimmune gastritis, pernicious anemia, increased growth of intestinal bacteria, chronic pancraeatitis
41) Rate of absorption of iron regulated by - mucosal stores of iron, route of administration, preparation
42) Fatty acids are transported by - transthyretin, pre-albumin, albumin, ceruloplasmin
43) Western Blotting is done for identifying - DNA, RNA, Protein,
44) Prostaglandins are derived from – corticosteroids, arachidonic acid,
45) Structure of DNA is maintained by - alfa helix, beta pleated, Z finger, triple helix
46) Ketone bodies synthesised by - muscle, liver, kidney, brain
47) Insulin is required for glucose transport in - RBC, adipose tissue, muscles, intestine
48 ) Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase is - cytosolic enzyme, mitochondrial enzyme, lysosolic enzyme, all of the above
49) Reducing agent used in lipogenesis is derived from - Pentose phosphate pathway, TCA cycle, Glycolysis, Gluconeogenesis
50) The L or D form of a compound is determined by its relation to - glucose, fructose, glycogen, aldehyde
Microbiology
51) Peptidoglycans are found in large quantities in cell wall of - gram +ve bacteria, gram-vebacteria, fungi, virus
52) Bile stained eggs are found in - E.histolytica, Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichura, Ankylostoma duodenale
53) Sabin Fieldmann test is used to diagnose - Toxoplasma, Giardia lamblia
54) Most common cause of chronic meningitis - cryptococcus neoformans, histoplasma, blastomyces
55) Anaemia is caused by - Ascaris lumbricoides, Ankylostoma duodenale, Taenia saginata
56) Chinese letter arrangement is seen in - Corynebnacterium diphtheria, M.tuberculosis, M.leprae, Chlamydia trachomatis
57) Carriers for Herpes simplex is - Monkey, Man, both, none
58 ) When a virus enters human body, it is first encountered by – B lymphocyte, T lymphocyte, natural killer cells, cytotoxic T cells
Pathology
59) Ulcer transforms into carcinoma in - stomach, duodenum,
60) H.pylori causes - MALToma,
61) Starry sky pattern not seen in - Burkitts lymphoma, Non-Burkitts lymphoma, Lymphoplastic lymphoma
62) Not a precancerous condition - leukoplakia, erythroplakia, chronic hyperplastic candidiasis, lichen planus
63) Single best prognostic factor in Papillary carcinoma of thyroid - grading, metastasis, stage, age of patient
64) The organ that is first involved in acute transplant rejection – liver, kidney, skin, heart
65) Following circulatory shock which of the following occurs - acute paillary necrosis, acute tubular necrosis
66) Most common cause of hyperaldosteronism is - adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma
67) Amyloid deposits are seen in - space of disse, intrahepatic, portal tract
68 ) Tabes intestinalis is found in - tuberculosis, mesenteric cyst, syphilis,
69) Call exner bodies are seen in - yolk sac tumour, granulosa cell tumour, theca cell tumour
70) Lymph node of an AIDS patient shows - aggregation of antibodies,
71) Malignant transformation is common in – intradermal nevus, junctional nevus, blue nevus,
Pharmacology
72) Asthmatic paient with hypertension treatment - propanolol, metaprolol, timolol
73) Antiepileptic drug causing hyperkinesia in children - sodium valproate, phenytoin, carbamazepine
74) Not an antiretroviral drug - nevirapine, ganciclovir
75) Drug causing toxic optic retinopathy - pyrazinamide, chloroquine, ethambutol
76) Drug used orally for treating scabies - levamisole, ivermectin, chloroquine
77) Drug acting on cell wall of gram positive bacteria - gentamycin, ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, vancomycin
78 ) Patient on antitubercular treatment shows tuberculin (+)ve after 3months of treatment
next step would be - a) continue treatment, b) switch to category 2 treatment,
79) Ergot derivatives are used in all except - uterine contraction, vasoconstrictive disorders, migraine
80) Which of the following is true regarding 5-HT derivatives - cyproheptadine is 5-HT2A antagonist,
81) Which of the following is true regarding 5-HT derivatives - sumatriptan is 5-HT 1B/1D receptor mediated,
82) Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor - alcohol, methotrexate
83) Drugs used in the treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma - i) adriamycin, vincristine, dacramycin, bleomycin ii) adriamycin, vinblastin, dacramycin, bleomycin iii) adramycin, vinblastin, dacramycin, blyocin
84) Dosage of Dopamine in shock - 1mg/kg, 2mg/kg, 1microgram/kg, 2microgram/kg
85) Following bee-sting a boy develops angioedema and dyspnea, treatment of choice - s.c.adrenaline, i.v.adrenaline, i.v.corticosteroid, antihistamine
86) Role of corticosteroids in asthma - causes bronchodilation, decreases mucosal oedema by suppressing inflammatory response, mast cell stabilization
87) Leukotriene antagonists are very useful in - exercise induced asthma, occupational asthma, atopic asthma, acute asthmatic attack
88 ) Drug causing thrombocytopenia - aspirin, ticlopidine
89) Which of the following drug inhibits plasminogen without causing bleeding – streptokinase, alteplase, tranexamic acid, EACA
90) A pregnant lady is suffering from peptic ulcer.drug that is contraindicated is - omeprazole, ranitidine, misoprostol, famotidine
91) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is caused by – antipsychotics
92) Drug of choice in hypertensive emergency in a pregnant lady – sodium nitroprusside, hydralazine, ACE inhibitors, diuretics
ENT
93) Horner's syndrome is caused by - facial injury, nasopharyngeal carcinoma with metastasis
94) Rhinne's test most useful at - 10dB, 15dB, 20dB, 25dB,
95) Cauliflower ear seen in - hematoma, carcinoma, fungal infection
96) Young's operation done in - atrophic rhinitis, vasomotor rhinitis, antrachonal polyp, allergic rhinitis
97) Abductors of vocal cord - lateral arytenoid, posterior arytenoid, cricothyroid,
98 ) Most common cause of deafness in children less than 12yrs - CSOM, otosclerosis
Ophthalmology
99) Synchysis means- vitreous hemorrhage, vitreous detachment, liquefaction of vitreous,
100) Blue Sclera is not associated with - Marfan's syndrome, Buphthalmos, high myopia, exophthalmos
101) Most common tumor of conjuctiva - basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma
102) Most common cause of delayed healing in corneal ulcer - concretions, inappropriate treatment, malnutrition
103) Photoretinitis is caused by - Ultraviolet rays, infrared rays
104) Treatment for dendritic ulcer - acyclovir, bandaging
105) Treatment for perforated corneal ulcer - contact lens, conjuctival flap grafting, tissue adhesive glue
106) Streaked vessels are seen in - papillitis, papilledema,
107) Not seen in papilledema - swelling of optic disc, macular fanning, tortuous veins,
108) Lisch nodules are seen in - retinoblastoma, neuroblastoma, neurofibromatosis
109) Bitemporal hemianopia seen in lesion of - optic tract, optic nerve, optic chiasma
110) Most severe form of congenital cataract - unilateral cataract, bilateral cataract, zonular cataract
111) Early sign of recurrent herpes zoster - vesicles on eyelids, punctate keratitis,f ollicular keratitis, dendritic ulcer
112) Laser used in LASIK surgery - krypton, excimer, argon
113) Chorioretinitis is caused by - Toxoplasma, cryptococcosis
114) Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of - sorbitol, mannitol, glucose, fructose
115) Most common eye Pathology in Toxoplasmosis - cataract,uveitis, chorioretinitis, corneal ulcer
Forensic Medicine
116) Fracture of hyoid bone common in - hanging, strangulation, throttling, choking
117) "Coup de Soleil" means - heat stroke, heat burn, heat cramps
118) In death due to air embolism, the emboli can be located at – abdominal aorta, inferior venacava, right ventricle, circle of Willis
119) Not used for treating acute iron poisoning - Desferrioxamine, BAL
120) Cause of death in drowning - laryngospasm, vagal hyperactivity, pulmonary edema
121) Patient presented with blue line in gums, basophilic stippling. poisoning is due to - inorganic lead, organic lead, arsenic
122) Antidote for copper poisoning is – Desferrioxamine, BAL,
PSM
123) Mumps doesn't cause - encephalitis, hepatitis, orchitis, oophoritis
124) When milk is taken before meal which of the following element's absorption is decreased - iron, calcium, phosphorus
125) Sentinel surveilance is used to detect - missed cases, new cases,
126) Vitamin not present in breast milk - A, D, B, K
127) Child-Women ratio is the number of child per - 1000 women, 1000 married women, 1000 women in reproductive age, 1000 married women in reproductive age
128) The number of girls a women would bear if she passes through her reproductive age with the same fertility rate gives - net reproductive rate, gross reproductive rate, total fertility rate,fertility rate
129) Which of the following is true regarding vaccination of a newborn with HIV - regular vaccination, only killed vaccines, both live and killed vaccines, no vaccination
130) Which of the following is advocated to a HIV +ve pregnant mother during delivery - nevirapine to both mother and newborn, zidovudine to both mother and newborn, zidovudine to both mother and newborn, nevirapine and zidovudine to both mother and newborn
131) 1st symptom of vitamin A deficiency - bitot's spots, night blindness, conjuctival xerosis, corneal ulcer
132) Infective period of chickenpox is - 1 day before and 4 days after rash, 4 days before and 1 day after rash, only when scab falls, entire incubation period
133) WHO's classification of deafness of range 56-70dB - mild, moderate, moderately severe, severe
134) Denominator while calculating secondary attack rate following a person with a primary disease is - people in his home, people in his family, all contacts of the person,
135) India is in which part of demographic scale? - early expanding stage, late expanding stage, stationary, early declining
136) Used in ante-mortem diagnosis of rabies - negri bodies in saliva, negri bodies in corneal scrapping, immunofluorescence of corneal impressions, antirabies antibodies in blood
137) Not a part of management in grade 3 dog bite infected with rabies - wash with soap and water, administration of antirabies serum and vaccination, stitch the wound with antibiotic coverage, vaccination
138) A person developed vomitting 6 hrs after consuming milk. organism responsible for this is - Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus, Salmonella typhi
139) Human Development Index includes all except – literacy, IMR, income,
140) Sullivan’s index is used to measure – number of years lived without disability, IMR,
141) Which of the following regarding Clostridium is true - Clostridium botulinum infects open wound, Clostridium perfringes infects wound contaminated with soil, Clostridium perfringes causes food poisoning
142) Standard deviation is defined as - arithmetic mean, deviation of a value on both sides of the normal value,
143) 72, 75, 79, 72, 78, 82, 72, 70, 83, 72. out of the given values mode is - 79, 72, 75, 80
144) Which of the following can be reduced by double blinding - recall bias, interviewer's bias, selection bias, berkesonian bias
Medicine
145) Common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage - hypertension, aneurysm, rupture of bridging veins
146) Investigation of choice of subarachnoid hemorhage - lumbar puncture, CT, angiography
147) Most useful investigation of choice in pulmonary embolism - conventional angiography, CT angiography, MRI angiography, Ventilation perfusion mismatch
148) Investigation of choice for diagnosing lung sequestration - CTangiography, angiography, X-ray PA view
149) Increased plasma concentration of calcium is seeen in - rickets, osteomalacia, hyperparathyroidism
150) Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in all except - biliary cirrhosis, pregnancy, myocardial infarction,
151) Weight gain is seen in all except - insulinoma, diabetes mellitus, phaeochromocytoma
152) Not seen in cushing's syndrome - hypoglycemia,
153) Not seen in acromegaly – muscle hypertrophy, diabetes mellitus, enlarged sinus, increased heel pad thickness
154) Not true about congenital hypothyroidism - seen in 1:4000 live births, females more often affected than males, no signs at birth, occurs due to antibodies against thyroid peroxisomes
155) Preobesity is defined as BMI of - 18.5-25, 25-30, 35-40, 40-45
156) A lady presented with dyspnea and palpitations. on examination there was a non ejection click,next investigation is - angiography, echocardiography
157) Hypercalcemia is seen in - calcitonin hypersecretion, hyperparathyroidism,
158) Bone age corresponds to chronological age in - familial short stature, rickets, osteomalacia
159) An young man brought to casualty with history of hematemesis, mild splenomegaly on examination. cause of bleeding is - tumour, gastritis, oesophageal varices
160) Gum hyperplasia is seen in - AML, ALL, CML, CLL,
161) Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism - adenoma, hyperplasia, carcinoma
162) Renal artery stenosis is not seen in - atherosclerosis, polyarteritis nodosa, takayasu arteritis, marfan's syndrome
163) Most common joint involved in osteoarthritis in India - shoulder, hip, knee, ankle
164) Part of knee most commonly involved in osteoarthritis - medial, lateral, medial and lateral
165) Normal anionic gap is seen in - diarrhea, ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis,
166) Positive End Expiratory Pressure is useful in - COPD, ARDS, Aspirational pneumonia,
167) Pulsus alternans is seen in – constrictive pericarditis, LVF, RVF, pericardial effusion
168) Most common cause of death in a patient with chronic renal failure on dailysis - infection, respiratory failure, uraemia,
169) Argyll-Robertson pupil is seen in - Neurosyphilis,
170) CSF in Tb meningitis - i) increased glucose, decreased proteins, decreased lymphocytes ii)increased glucose, increased proteins, increased lymphocytes iii)decreased glucose, increased proteins, increased lymphocytes iv) decreased glucose, increased proteins, decreased lymphocytes
171) Not seen in hyponatremia - delusion, vomitting, anorexia, nausea
172) Sign seen in water intoxication -
173) Lung cavitation seen in - squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, asbestosis, silicosis
174) Most common occupational malignancy - skin, lung, bladder, breast
175) Regarding Austin-Flint murmur,false is - functional murmur, systolic murmur, aortic regurgitation,
176) Which of the following plays an important role in the treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis – bicarbonate, potassium, normal saline, insulin
Surgery
177) Which of the following causes orchitis without epidydimitis - TB, Gonorrhoea, Chlamydia trachomatis, Mumps
178) Drainage of venous blood from testes following varicocelectomy is through - pampiniform plexus, cremasteric vein, iliac vein, internal pudendal vein
179) Cause of dysphagia which is decreased for solids and increased for liquids - achalasia cardia, carcinoma of esophagus,
180) Carcinoma of tongue is most common in - lateral border, dorsum,
181) Not a contraindication for doing percutaneous liver biopsy - INR 1.5, hemangioma, biliary obstruction, portal hypertension
182) Cause of hematemesis in a patient with mild splenomegaly - Esophageal varices, gastritis,
183) Not a part of charcot's triad - intermittent pain, intermittent vomitting, intermittent fever, intermittent jaundice
184) Pentad of pain, fever, jaundice, confusion, shock seen in - cholecystitis, hepatitis, pancreatitis
185) Most common type of gallstone - combined, mixed, pigment, cholesterol
186) Not a complication of prostatic surgery in an elderly man - urinary retention, constipation, rupture of urethra, ejaculatory failure
187) Following urethral rupture immediate procedure to be done - rail tracking, suprapubic cystostomy, urinary catheterisation
188) Part of urethra most commonly injured following instrumentation - bulbous, prostatic, membranous
189) Not seen in 3rd degree burn - no vesicles, red colour, painful, loss of skin appendages
190) Cryoprecipitate contains - factor V, factor VIII, factor IX, factor II
191) Most common testicular tumour in 4th decade - seminoma, dermoid, teratoma,
192) Treatment for appendicular abscess - intraperitoneal drainage, extraperitoneal drainage, emergency appendicectomy, observation
193) Hypochloremic alkalosis seen in - achalasia cardia, congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, diarrhea
194) Most common congenital anomaly of face is - cleft lip alone, cleft lip and cleft palate, cleft palate
195) Positive Pressure Ventilation is useful in - pneumothorax, flail chest, hemothorax, hemopneumothorax
196) Which of the following plays a major role for the development of symptoms in dumping syndrome - hypoglycemia, glucagon, CCK,
197) According to "rule of 9's" burns involving perinium are - 01%, 27%, 18%, 9%
198) Erythroplasia of queyrat occurs in - glans penis, shaft of penis, base of penis, scrotum
Obstetrics
199) Pearl index is used to calculate - abortions, accidental pregnancies, fertility rate
200) Ultrasound in done in 1st trimester for all except - to estimate gestational age, to know the position of the placenta
201) Prolonged 1st stage of labour is not due to - CPD, weak uterine contractions, rigid perineum,
202) Most common form of multiple pregnancy - monochorionic monoamniotic, monochorionic diamniotic, dichorionic diamniotic, dichorionic monoamniotic
203) Largest fetal head diameter - occipitofrontal, submentovertical, mentovertical, subocccipitobregmatic
204) The distance from the upper end of sacrum to lower border of pubis corresponds to - obstetric conjugate, diagonal conjugate, true conjugate, transverse conjugate
205) Contraindication for applying forceps - CPD, crowning of head, head station +1, maternal cardiac disease
206) Not associated with twin pregnancy - atonic uterus, antepartum hemorrhage,
207) Fetal adrenals release predominantly - cortisone, aldosterone, testosterone, oestrogen
208) During pregnancy benign breast carcinoma undergoes - malignant change, red degeneration, fibrocalcinosis, metastasis
209) Bishop's score doesn't include - cervical length, cervical consistency, station of head, position of head
210) Contraindicated during labour - oxytocin, misoprostol, mifepristone,
211) Which one of the following i strue - Mariceau-Smellie-Veit technique is used to deliver the head in breech presentation,
Gynaecology
212) 18yr old girl presented with primary amenorrhea, normal breast development, absent pubic and axillary hair - testicular feminizing syndrome, turner syndrome, mullerian agenesis, premature ovarian failure
213) Not seen in anorexia nervosa - menorrhagia, weight loss,
214) Organism which grows at a pH of 4.5 - trichomanas vaginalis, candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, gonococcus
215) A female presented with white discharge and pruritus. aetiological agent - trichomonas vaginalis, candida albicans, gardnerella, gonococci
216) Not useful for diagnosis in a female of 55yrs presenting with postmenopausal bleeding - pap smear, endometrial biopsy, transvaginal USG, postcoital test
Paediatrics
217) Prelacteal feed given is - milk, water, honey, none
218) A child of 3 yrs is able to - draw a circle, rides bicycle, writes sentences,
Orthopaedics
219) Inability to adduct the thumb due to injury to the nerve - median, ulnar, radial,
220) Carpel tunnel syndrome due to - median nerve, ulnar nerve,
221) Most commonly used muscle for grafting - plantaris, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus
222) Waddling gait due to - congenital dysplasia of hip, valgus, CTEV, bilateral valgus, bilateral varus
223) Spondylysis common in - intervertebral disc, anterior part, pars intervertebralis, annulus
224) Tumour following radiation exposure - osteosarcoma, osteoblastoma, ewing's sarcoma
225) "Bone inside Bone" seen in - osteomalacia, osteopetrosis, rickets
226) Calaneo valgus occurs due to paralysis of - gastrosoleus, gastrosoleus and tibialis posterior,
227) Most common bone involved in fracture of face - nasal, nasoethmoid, zygomatic, mandible
228) Trendelenburg sign is +ve due to - gluteum maximus, gluteus medius, psoas major, adductor magnus
Dermatology
229) Nail deformity seen in lichen planus - pterygium, subungual keratosis, oncholysis, beau's lines
230) Albinism - autosomal recessive, autosomal dominant, X-linked recessive, X-linked dominant
231) Fungus which involves hair - microsporum, epidermophyton
232) Kerion is - viral infection, fungal infection, bacterial infection, parasitic infection
233) Nerve thickening with nodules on skin is present in which stage of leprosy - borderline lepromatous, tuberculoid, intermediate, borderline tubeculoid
234) Multiple lesions are present in - borderline lepromatous, borderline, borderline tubeculoid, tuberculoid
Radiology
235) Iodine 121 preferred than Iodine 131 because - emits beta rays, emits beta and gamma rays, longer half life
236) Harmful ray is - alpha, gamma, neutron, electron
237) Most radiosensitive cell is - neutrophil, lymphocyte, megakaryocyte,
238) Ultrasound finding seen in chronic renal disease - enlarged kidneys, shrunken kidney,
239) Some technique done via – transfemoral route, transbrachial route, transradial route
Anesthesiology
240) Site for external cardiac massage - lower 1/3rd of sternum, junction of body and manubrium sterni, xiphoid process
241) Most common complication following intubation - bleeding, malposition, sore throat
242) Most common complication following bag ventilation by anesthesist - respiratory alkalosis,
243) Regarding neuromuscular blockers which of the following is true - neostigmine reverses the effect of succinylcholine, atracurium is a depolarizing agent, something about pancuronium
Psychiatry
245) Most common type of schizophrenia - paranoid, simple, catatonic, disorganized
246) The term psychoanalysis was coined by -
247) Method of breaking bad news - burst, spread,spike
248) Modern classification of Psychiatry was done by -
1) Nerve supply to hypothenar muscles - ulnar, median, radial, musculocutaneous
2) The ligament which transfers weight of arm to the trunk - costoclavicular, coracoclavicular, acromioclavicular,
3) Not present at the level of pylorus - L1 vertebra, right suprarenal gland, tip of ninth cartilage, fundus of gallbladder
4) True about ureter - crosses behind bifurcation of common iliac artery, pelvic part is 20cm, uterine artery crosses in front, lined by cuboidal epithelium
5) The nerve that is not injured during surgery of submandibular region - hypoglossal, facial, lingual, glossopharyngeal
6) Parotid duct opens opposite to - upper 1st molar, upper 2nd molar, upper 2nd premolar, upper 1st premolar
7) Common location of cirsoid aneurysm - external carotid, internal carotid, superficial temporal, occipital
8 ) Cross section of superior colliculus at the level of brain stem shows - Red nucleus, Rednucleus and Abducent nerve, Red nucleus and optic nerve
9) Function of superior oblique - a)intortion, adduction &depression b)intortion, abduction and elevation c) intortion, abduction and depression d) extortion, abduction and depression
10) Nerve commonly involved in Gullain Barre syndrome - facial, optic, oculomotor, trochlear
11) Safety muscle of tongue - styloglossus, genioglossus, palatoglossus
12) Nerve supply to angle of mandible - mandibular, facial, hypoglossal
13) Spinal part of accesory nerve supplies - sternocleidomastoid, deltoid,
14) Primary auditory area - inferior temporal gyrus, supratemporal plane of superior temporal gyrus
15) A lesion involving right upper motor neuron of facial nerve causes paralysis of - right lower facial muscles, left lower facial muscles, all facial muscles on right side
16) Optic nerve is - 1st order neuron, 2nd order neuron
17) SA node is supplied by - left anterior descending coronary artery, right coronary artery,
18 ) Muscle that is most commonly used for grafting - sartorius, gracilis, plantaris,
19) Urinary bladder trigone develops from - mesoderm, endoderm of urachus, ectoderm,
20) Which of the following doesn’t drain into coronary sinus – great cardiac vein, small cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, anterior cardiac vein
21) Something related to fossa ovalis – septum primum, crescentic SA fold, septum secundum
Physiology
22) Heat stimulated sweating is mediated by - parasympathetic stimulation, cholinergic mediated sympathetic activity
23) Hagemann factor is involved in - extrinsic pathway, intrinsic pathway, fibrinolysis, none
24) When aPTT is prolonged factor not affected is - XII, XI, VII,I X
25) Strongest effect on vagal inhibition is seen in - stomach, intestine
26) Plasma makes - 5% of BW, 10% of BW, 15% of BW, 20% of BW
27) When light falls on retinal pigment epithelium - depolarisation occurs, repolarisation occurs, spike potential is generated
28 ) Maximum number of sodium channels per square inch is present in - dendrites, axonal body, schwann cells, myelin sheath
29) The cilia present in the inner ear moves - when perilymph moves, when moving person suddenly stops, when head is rotated
30) Erythropoietin is secreted by - extraglomerular mesangial cells, interstitial cells of kidney, macula densa, renal tubular epithelial cells
31) Maximum absorption of Na, K, Cl in proximal convoluted tubule occurs due to the effect of - angiotensin II, aldosterone
32) Role of cholesterol in cell wall - fluidity, hydrophobicity, thickness
33) Major contribution to plasma osmalality - Na, K, Cl, Mg
34) Mean Arterial Pressure is - arithmetic mean of sysolic and diastolic pressures, diastolic + 1/3rd of systolic, diastolic +1/3(SP-DP)
35) Which of the following is true - vital capacity increases in elderly, functional residual capacity accounts for 75% of total lung capacity
36) True about Iron absorption is – decreases following gastrojejunostomy, absorbed in distal ileum, decreases following jejunoileal resection
Biochemistry
37) Glutathione is - dipeptide, oligopeptide, tripeptide, polypeptide
38 ) To check clotting factors what is added to blood - EDTA, tricitrate, oxalate
39) Sodium fluoride added to blood inhibits - enolase, hexokinase
40) Decreased cyanocobalamin absorption not seen in - autoimmune gastritis, pernicious anemia, increased growth of intestinal bacteria, chronic pancraeatitis
41) Rate of absorption of iron regulated by - mucosal stores of iron, route of administration, preparation
42) Fatty acids are transported by - transthyretin, pre-albumin, albumin, ceruloplasmin
43) Western Blotting is done for identifying - DNA, RNA, Protein,
44) Prostaglandins are derived from – corticosteroids, arachidonic acid,
45) Structure of DNA is maintained by - alfa helix, beta pleated, Z finger, triple helix
46) Ketone bodies synthesised by - muscle, liver, kidney, brain
47) Insulin is required for glucose transport in - RBC, adipose tissue, muscles, intestine
48 ) Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase is - cytosolic enzyme, mitochondrial enzyme, lysosolic enzyme, all of the above
49) Reducing agent used in lipogenesis is derived from - Pentose phosphate pathway, TCA cycle, Glycolysis, Gluconeogenesis
50) The L or D form of a compound is determined by its relation to - glucose, fructose, glycogen, aldehyde
Microbiology
51) Peptidoglycans are found in large quantities in cell wall of - gram +ve bacteria, gram-vebacteria, fungi, virus
52) Bile stained eggs are found in - E.histolytica, Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichura, Ankylostoma duodenale
53) Sabin Fieldmann test is used to diagnose - Toxoplasma, Giardia lamblia
54) Most common cause of chronic meningitis - cryptococcus neoformans, histoplasma, blastomyces
55) Anaemia is caused by - Ascaris lumbricoides, Ankylostoma duodenale, Taenia saginata
56) Chinese letter arrangement is seen in - Corynebnacterium diphtheria, M.tuberculosis, M.leprae, Chlamydia trachomatis
57) Carriers for Herpes simplex is - Monkey, Man, both, none
58 ) When a virus enters human body, it is first encountered by – B lymphocyte, T lymphocyte, natural killer cells, cytotoxic T cells
Pathology
59) Ulcer transforms into carcinoma in - stomach, duodenum,
60) H.pylori causes - MALToma,
61) Starry sky pattern not seen in - Burkitts lymphoma, Non-Burkitts lymphoma, Lymphoplastic lymphoma
62) Not a precancerous condition - leukoplakia, erythroplakia, chronic hyperplastic candidiasis, lichen planus
63) Single best prognostic factor in Papillary carcinoma of thyroid - grading, metastasis, stage, age of patient
64) The organ that is first involved in acute transplant rejection – liver, kidney, skin, heart
65) Following circulatory shock which of the following occurs - acute paillary necrosis, acute tubular necrosis
66) Most common cause of hyperaldosteronism is - adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma
67) Amyloid deposits are seen in - space of disse, intrahepatic, portal tract
68 ) Tabes intestinalis is found in - tuberculosis, mesenteric cyst, syphilis,
69) Call exner bodies are seen in - yolk sac tumour, granulosa cell tumour, theca cell tumour
70) Lymph node of an AIDS patient shows - aggregation of antibodies,
71) Malignant transformation is common in – intradermal nevus, junctional nevus, blue nevus,
Pharmacology
72) Asthmatic paient with hypertension treatment - propanolol, metaprolol, timolol
73) Antiepileptic drug causing hyperkinesia in children - sodium valproate, phenytoin, carbamazepine
74) Not an antiretroviral drug - nevirapine, ganciclovir
75) Drug causing toxic optic retinopathy - pyrazinamide, chloroquine, ethambutol
76) Drug used orally for treating scabies - levamisole, ivermectin, chloroquine
77) Drug acting on cell wall of gram positive bacteria - gentamycin, ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, vancomycin
78 ) Patient on antitubercular treatment shows tuberculin (+)ve after 3months of treatment
next step would be - a) continue treatment, b) switch to category 2 treatment,
79) Ergot derivatives are used in all except - uterine contraction, vasoconstrictive disorders, migraine
80) Which of the following is true regarding 5-HT derivatives - cyproheptadine is 5-HT2A antagonist,
81) Which of the following is true regarding 5-HT derivatives - sumatriptan is 5-HT 1B/1D receptor mediated,
82) Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor - alcohol, methotrexate
83) Drugs used in the treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma - i) adriamycin, vincristine, dacramycin, bleomycin ii) adriamycin, vinblastin, dacramycin, bleomycin iii) adramycin, vinblastin, dacramycin, blyocin
84) Dosage of Dopamine in shock - 1mg/kg, 2mg/kg, 1microgram/kg, 2microgram/kg
85) Following bee-sting a boy develops angioedema and dyspnea, treatment of choice - s.c.adrenaline, i.v.adrenaline, i.v.corticosteroid, antihistamine
86) Role of corticosteroids in asthma - causes bronchodilation, decreases mucosal oedema by suppressing inflammatory response, mast cell stabilization
87) Leukotriene antagonists are very useful in - exercise induced asthma, occupational asthma, atopic asthma, acute asthmatic attack
88 ) Drug causing thrombocytopenia - aspirin, ticlopidine
89) Which of the following drug inhibits plasminogen without causing bleeding – streptokinase, alteplase, tranexamic acid, EACA
90) A pregnant lady is suffering from peptic ulcer.drug that is contraindicated is - omeprazole, ranitidine, misoprostol, famotidine
91) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is caused by – antipsychotics
92) Drug of choice in hypertensive emergency in a pregnant lady – sodium nitroprusside, hydralazine, ACE inhibitors, diuretics
ENT
93) Horner's syndrome is caused by - facial injury, nasopharyngeal carcinoma with metastasis
94) Rhinne's test most useful at - 10dB, 15dB, 20dB, 25dB,
95) Cauliflower ear seen in - hematoma, carcinoma, fungal infection
96) Young's operation done in - atrophic rhinitis, vasomotor rhinitis, antrachonal polyp, allergic rhinitis
97) Abductors of vocal cord - lateral arytenoid, posterior arytenoid, cricothyroid,
98 ) Most common cause of deafness in children less than 12yrs - CSOM, otosclerosis
Ophthalmology
99) Synchysis means- vitreous hemorrhage, vitreous detachment, liquefaction of vitreous,
100) Blue Sclera is not associated with - Marfan's syndrome, Buphthalmos, high myopia, exophthalmos
101) Most common tumor of conjuctiva - basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma
102) Most common cause of delayed healing in corneal ulcer - concretions, inappropriate treatment, malnutrition
103) Photoretinitis is caused by - Ultraviolet rays, infrared rays
104) Treatment for dendritic ulcer - acyclovir, bandaging
105) Treatment for perforated corneal ulcer - contact lens, conjuctival flap grafting, tissue adhesive glue
106) Streaked vessels are seen in - papillitis, papilledema,
107) Not seen in papilledema - swelling of optic disc, macular fanning, tortuous veins,
108) Lisch nodules are seen in - retinoblastoma, neuroblastoma, neurofibromatosis
109) Bitemporal hemianopia seen in lesion of - optic tract, optic nerve, optic chiasma
110) Most severe form of congenital cataract - unilateral cataract, bilateral cataract, zonular cataract
111) Early sign of recurrent herpes zoster - vesicles on eyelids, punctate keratitis,f ollicular keratitis, dendritic ulcer
112) Laser used in LASIK surgery - krypton, excimer, argon
113) Chorioretinitis is caused by - Toxoplasma, cryptococcosis
114) Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of - sorbitol, mannitol, glucose, fructose
115) Most common eye Pathology in Toxoplasmosis - cataract,uveitis, chorioretinitis, corneal ulcer
Forensic Medicine
116) Fracture of hyoid bone common in - hanging, strangulation, throttling, choking
117) "Coup de Soleil" means - heat stroke, heat burn, heat cramps
118) In death due to air embolism, the emboli can be located at – abdominal aorta, inferior venacava, right ventricle, circle of Willis
119) Not used for treating acute iron poisoning - Desferrioxamine, BAL
120) Cause of death in drowning - laryngospasm, vagal hyperactivity, pulmonary edema
121) Patient presented with blue line in gums, basophilic stippling. poisoning is due to - inorganic lead, organic lead, arsenic
122) Antidote for copper poisoning is – Desferrioxamine, BAL,
PSM
123) Mumps doesn't cause - encephalitis, hepatitis, orchitis, oophoritis
124) When milk is taken before meal which of the following element's absorption is decreased - iron, calcium, phosphorus
125) Sentinel surveilance is used to detect - missed cases, new cases,
126) Vitamin not present in breast milk - A, D, B, K
127) Child-Women ratio is the number of child per - 1000 women, 1000 married women, 1000 women in reproductive age, 1000 married women in reproductive age
128) The number of girls a women would bear if she passes through her reproductive age with the same fertility rate gives - net reproductive rate, gross reproductive rate, total fertility rate,fertility rate
129) Which of the following is true regarding vaccination of a newborn with HIV - regular vaccination, only killed vaccines, both live and killed vaccines, no vaccination
130) Which of the following is advocated to a HIV +ve pregnant mother during delivery - nevirapine to both mother and newborn, zidovudine to both mother and newborn, zidovudine to both mother and newborn, nevirapine and zidovudine to both mother and newborn
131) 1st symptom of vitamin A deficiency - bitot's spots, night blindness, conjuctival xerosis, corneal ulcer
132) Infective period of chickenpox is - 1 day before and 4 days after rash, 4 days before and 1 day after rash, only when scab falls, entire incubation period
133) WHO's classification of deafness of range 56-70dB - mild, moderate, moderately severe, severe
134) Denominator while calculating secondary attack rate following a person with a primary disease is - people in his home, people in his family, all contacts of the person,
135) India is in which part of demographic scale? - early expanding stage, late expanding stage, stationary, early declining
136) Used in ante-mortem diagnosis of rabies - negri bodies in saliva, negri bodies in corneal scrapping, immunofluorescence of corneal impressions, antirabies antibodies in blood
137) Not a part of management in grade 3 dog bite infected with rabies - wash with soap and water, administration of antirabies serum and vaccination, stitch the wound with antibiotic coverage, vaccination
138) A person developed vomitting 6 hrs after consuming milk. organism responsible for this is - Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus, Salmonella typhi
139) Human Development Index includes all except – literacy, IMR, income,
140) Sullivan’s index is used to measure – number of years lived without disability, IMR,
141) Which of the following regarding Clostridium is true - Clostridium botulinum infects open wound, Clostridium perfringes infects wound contaminated with soil, Clostridium perfringes causes food poisoning
142) Standard deviation is defined as - arithmetic mean, deviation of a value on both sides of the normal value,
143) 72, 75, 79, 72, 78, 82, 72, 70, 83, 72. out of the given values mode is - 79, 72, 75, 80
144) Which of the following can be reduced by double blinding - recall bias, interviewer's bias, selection bias, berkesonian bias
Medicine
145) Common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage - hypertension, aneurysm, rupture of bridging veins
146) Investigation of choice of subarachnoid hemorhage - lumbar puncture, CT, angiography
147) Most useful investigation of choice in pulmonary embolism - conventional angiography, CT angiography, MRI angiography, Ventilation perfusion mismatch
148) Investigation of choice for diagnosing lung sequestration - CTangiography, angiography, X-ray PA view
149) Increased plasma concentration of calcium is seeen in - rickets, osteomalacia, hyperparathyroidism
150) Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in all except - biliary cirrhosis, pregnancy, myocardial infarction,
151) Weight gain is seen in all except - insulinoma, diabetes mellitus, phaeochromocytoma
152) Not seen in cushing's syndrome - hypoglycemia,
153) Not seen in acromegaly – muscle hypertrophy, diabetes mellitus, enlarged sinus, increased heel pad thickness
154) Not true about congenital hypothyroidism - seen in 1:4000 live births, females more often affected than males, no signs at birth, occurs due to antibodies against thyroid peroxisomes
155) Preobesity is defined as BMI of - 18.5-25, 25-30, 35-40, 40-45
156) A lady presented with dyspnea and palpitations. on examination there was a non ejection click,next investigation is - angiography, echocardiography
157) Hypercalcemia is seen in - calcitonin hypersecretion, hyperparathyroidism,
158) Bone age corresponds to chronological age in - familial short stature, rickets, osteomalacia
159) An young man brought to casualty with history of hematemesis, mild splenomegaly on examination. cause of bleeding is - tumour, gastritis, oesophageal varices
160) Gum hyperplasia is seen in - AML, ALL, CML, CLL,
161) Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism - adenoma, hyperplasia, carcinoma
162) Renal artery stenosis is not seen in - atherosclerosis, polyarteritis nodosa, takayasu arteritis, marfan's syndrome
163) Most common joint involved in osteoarthritis in India - shoulder, hip, knee, ankle
164) Part of knee most commonly involved in osteoarthritis - medial, lateral, medial and lateral
165) Normal anionic gap is seen in - diarrhea, ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis,
166) Positive End Expiratory Pressure is useful in - COPD, ARDS, Aspirational pneumonia,
167) Pulsus alternans is seen in – constrictive pericarditis, LVF, RVF, pericardial effusion
168) Most common cause of death in a patient with chronic renal failure on dailysis - infection, respiratory failure, uraemia,
169) Argyll-Robertson pupil is seen in - Neurosyphilis,
170) CSF in Tb meningitis - i) increased glucose, decreased proteins, decreased lymphocytes ii)increased glucose, increased proteins, increased lymphocytes iii)decreased glucose, increased proteins, increased lymphocytes iv) decreased glucose, increased proteins, decreased lymphocytes
171) Not seen in hyponatremia - delusion, vomitting, anorexia, nausea
172) Sign seen in water intoxication -
173) Lung cavitation seen in - squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, asbestosis, silicosis
174) Most common occupational malignancy - skin, lung, bladder, breast
175) Regarding Austin-Flint murmur,false is - functional murmur, systolic murmur, aortic regurgitation,
176) Which of the following plays an important role in the treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis – bicarbonate, potassium, normal saline, insulin
Surgery
177) Which of the following causes orchitis without epidydimitis - TB, Gonorrhoea, Chlamydia trachomatis, Mumps
178) Drainage of venous blood from testes following varicocelectomy is through - pampiniform plexus, cremasteric vein, iliac vein, internal pudendal vein
179) Cause of dysphagia which is decreased for solids and increased for liquids - achalasia cardia, carcinoma of esophagus,
180) Carcinoma of tongue is most common in - lateral border, dorsum,
181) Not a contraindication for doing percutaneous liver biopsy - INR 1.5, hemangioma, biliary obstruction, portal hypertension
182) Cause of hematemesis in a patient with mild splenomegaly - Esophageal varices, gastritis,
183) Not a part of charcot's triad - intermittent pain, intermittent vomitting, intermittent fever, intermittent jaundice
184) Pentad of pain, fever, jaundice, confusion, shock seen in - cholecystitis, hepatitis, pancreatitis
185) Most common type of gallstone - combined, mixed, pigment, cholesterol
186) Not a complication of prostatic surgery in an elderly man - urinary retention, constipation, rupture of urethra, ejaculatory failure
187) Following urethral rupture immediate procedure to be done - rail tracking, suprapubic cystostomy, urinary catheterisation
188) Part of urethra most commonly injured following instrumentation - bulbous, prostatic, membranous
189) Not seen in 3rd degree burn - no vesicles, red colour, painful, loss of skin appendages
190) Cryoprecipitate contains - factor V, factor VIII, factor IX, factor II
191) Most common testicular tumour in 4th decade - seminoma, dermoid, teratoma,
192) Treatment for appendicular abscess - intraperitoneal drainage, extraperitoneal drainage, emergency appendicectomy, observation
193) Hypochloremic alkalosis seen in - achalasia cardia, congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, diarrhea
194) Most common congenital anomaly of face is - cleft lip alone, cleft lip and cleft palate, cleft palate
195) Positive Pressure Ventilation is useful in - pneumothorax, flail chest, hemothorax, hemopneumothorax
196) Which of the following plays a major role for the development of symptoms in dumping syndrome - hypoglycemia, glucagon, CCK,
197) According to "rule of 9's" burns involving perinium are - 01%, 27%, 18%, 9%
198) Erythroplasia of queyrat occurs in - glans penis, shaft of penis, base of penis, scrotum
Obstetrics
199) Pearl index is used to calculate - abortions, accidental pregnancies, fertility rate
200) Ultrasound in done in 1st trimester for all except - to estimate gestational age, to know the position of the placenta
201) Prolonged 1st stage of labour is not due to - CPD, weak uterine contractions, rigid perineum,
202) Most common form of multiple pregnancy - monochorionic monoamniotic, monochorionic diamniotic, dichorionic diamniotic, dichorionic monoamniotic
203) Largest fetal head diameter - occipitofrontal, submentovertical, mentovertical, subocccipitobregmatic
204) The distance from the upper end of sacrum to lower border of pubis corresponds to - obstetric conjugate, diagonal conjugate, true conjugate, transverse conjugate
205) Contraindication for applying forceps - CPD, crowning of head, head station +1, maternal cardiac disease
206) Not associated with twin pregnancy - atonic uterus, antepartum hemorrhage,
207) Fetal adrenals release predominantly - cortisone, aldosterone, testosterone, oestrogen
208) During pregnancy benign breast carcinoma undergoes - malignant change, red degeneration, fibrocalcinosis, metastasis
209) Bishop's score doesn't include - cervical length, cervical consistency, station of head, position of head
210) Contraindicated during labour - oxytocin, misoprostol, mifepristone,
211) Which one of the following i strue - Mariceau-Smellie-Veit technique is used to deliver the head in breech presentation,
Gynaecology
212) 18yr old girl presented with primary amenorrhea, normal breast development, absent pubic and axillary hair - testicular feminizing syndrome, turner syndrome, mullerian agenesis, premature ovarian failure
213) Not seen in anorexia nervosa - menorrhagia, weight loss,
214) Organism which grows at a pH of 4.5 - trichomanas vaginalis, candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, gonococcus
215) A female presented with white discharge and pruritus. aetiological agent - trichomonas vaginalis, candida albicans, gardnerella, gonococci
216) Not useful for diagnosis in a female of 55yrs presenting with postmenopausal bleeding - pap smear, endometrial biopsy, transvaginal USG, postcoital test
Paediatrics
217) Prelacteal feed given is - milk, water, honey, none
218) A child of 3 yrs is able to - draw a circle, rides bicycle, writes sentences,
Orthopaedics
219) Inability to adduct the thumb due to injury to the nerve - median, ulnar, radial,
220) Carpel tunnel syndrome due to - median nerve, ulnar nerve,
221) Most commonly used muscle for grafting - plantaris, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus
222) Waddling gait due to - congenital dysplasia of hip, valgus, CTEV, bilateral valgus, bilateral varus
223) Spondylysis common in - intervertebral disc, anterior part, pars intervertebralis, annulus
224) Tumour following radiation exposure - osteosarcoma, osteoblastoma, ewing's sarcoma
225) "Bone inside Bone" seen in - osteomalacia, osteopetrosis, rickets
226) Calaneo valgus occurs due to paralysis of - gastrosoleus, gastrosoleus and tibialis posterior,
227) Most common bone involved in fracture of face - nasal, nasoethmoid, zygomatic, mandible
228) Trendelenburg sign is +ve due to - gluteum maximus, gluteus medius, psoas major, adductor magnus
Dermatology
229) Nail deformity seen in lichen planus - pterygium, subungual keratosis, oncholysis, beau's lines
230) Albinism - autosomal recessive, autosomal dominant, X-linked recessive, X-linked dominant
231) Fungus which involves hair - microsporum, epidermophyton
232) Kerion is - viral infection, fungal infection, bacterial infection, parasitic infection
233) Nerve thickening with nodules on skin is present in which stage of leprosy - borderline lepromatous, tuberculoid, intermediate, borderline tubeculoid
234) Multiple lesions are present in - borderline lepromatous, borderline, borderline tubeculoid, tuberculoid
Radiology
235) Iodine 121 preferred than Iodine 131 because - emits beta rays, emits beta and gamma rays, longer half life
236) Harmful ray is - alpha, gamma, neutron, electron
237) Most radiosensitive cell is - neutrophil, lymphocyte, megakaryocyte,
238) Ultrasound finding seen in chronic renal disease - enlarged kidneys, shrunken kidney,
239) Some technique done via – transfemoral route, transbrachial route, transradial route
Anesthesiology
240) Site for external cardiac massage - lower 1/3rd of sternum, junction of body and manubrium sterni, xiphoid process
241) Most common complication following intubation - bleeding, malposition, sore throat
242) Most common complication following bag ventilation by anesthesist - respiratory alkalosis,
243) Regarding neuromuscular blockers which of the following is true - neostigmine reverses the effect of succinylcholine, atracurium is a depolarizing agent, something about pancuronium
Psychiatry
245) Most common type of schizophrenia - paranoid, simple, catatonic, disorganized
246) The term psychoanalysis was coined by -
247) Method of breaking bad news - burst, spread,spike
248) Modern classification of Psychiatry was done by -
Sunday, May 31, 2009
DIAMS starts free online test on the website
WWW.diamsonline.org, the URL that is to be pasted in your browser to get a first hand glimpse of your preparation for the examination. the answers to the questions are checked from standard textbooks by the faculty and uploaded after a double check to provide first rate information about the kinda questions that are anticipated. Keep the tempo!
Monday, May 18, 2009
MCI verifies via biometric system
latest news states that MCI is gonna use video recording and biometric records for getting rid of the impersonators. the drive is petty aggressive and beware no games at all with these guys as they mean buisness.
In a nut shell study all the subjects and train HARD as the terrain is tough!!!
Thursday, May 7, 2009
DIAMS LANDS IN SHANGHAI
the premier coaching magnate DIAMS - is here in china for solving all ur queries realted to MCI screening
MARCH 2009 sample a few MCQ
Sample a few recall MCI SCREENING TEST 2009 MARCH questions……………more with explanation shall be uploaded soon
1. False negative tuberculin test is seen in all except:
a. Miliary TB
b. Post measles state
c. Post steroid intake
d. Earlier Mantoux test
2. Cancer seen with HIV are all except:
a. Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Non Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Cervical cancer
d. Stomach cancer
3. All are seen in AIDS except:
a. Hemotoxylin bodies
b. Kaposi sarcoma
c. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
d. Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis
4. SAP is increased in all except:
a. Hepatitis
b. Cholangitis
c. Pregnancy
d. Obstructive jaundice
5. 30 yr old patient with sever hematemesis episode last week. The patient has been on medication for past 2 weeks,never had jaundice and has a co- existent splenomegaly. The most probable diagnosis is :
a. Oeso-phageal varices due to portal hypertension
b. PUD
c. Drug induced gastric erosions
d. Cirrhosis
6. All are seen with hypothyroidism except;
a. Carpal tunnel syndrome
b. Moist palms
c. Alopecia
d. Pericardial effusions
7. Gastric ulcer are associated with
a. Malignancy
b. Pancreatitis
c. Hyper chlorhydria
d. mentriers disease
8. USG in Chronic failure shows:
a. Granular enlarged kidney
b. Unilateral scarred kidney
c. Bilateral shrunken kidney
d. Bilateral cystic kidney
9. Macro-vesicular fatty liver is seen with:
a. Pregnancy
b. Steroids
c. INH
d. Reye syndrome
10. Coup de chaleur is:
a. Heat stroke
b. Heat exhaustion
c. Heat syncope
d. Heat hyperpyrexia
11. Female patient with asthma and HTN, the best drug for her HTN shall be
a. Propranolol
b. labetalol
c. metoprolol
d. carvedilol
12. Tumor associated with H. Pylori is
a. MALTOMA
b. Burkitt lymphoma
c. X
d. X
13. IOC for pulmonary embolism:
a. V/P
b. MRA
c. CTA
d. Conventional angiography
14. Best for diagnosis of fat embolism:
a. Xenon scan
b. Angiography
c. CT
d. D Dimer assay
e.
15. Most common complication of endotracheal intubation is:
a. Blockage
b. Displacement
c. Subglottic stenosis
d. Laryngeal edema
16. Maximum sodium channels are seen in:
a. Neurons
b. Initial segment exons
c. exon form myelin sheath
d. axon hillock
17. For coagulation studies the sample is taken in:
a. Citrate
b. Heparin
c. EDTA
d. Federlate
18. Copper toxicity is best managed by:
a. ZINC
b. Iron
c. Gold
d. Silver
19. False statement about gut is:
a. Iron is absorbed from the distal ileum
b. Folic acid absorbed from jejunum
c. B12 requires intrinsic factor produced by parietal cells
d. Xylose absorbtion test used for small intestinal malabsorbtion.
20. Longest acting Beta1 agonist is:
a. formoterol
b. bambuterol
c. albuterol
d. salmeterol
21. Not contraindication for transcutaneous liver biopsy is:
a. Biliary obstruction
b. INR> 1.5
c. Portal HTN
d. Hemagioma
22. False about Temporal arteritis is:
a. Seen in old age females
b. > 50yr of age
c. Migraine
d. Incidence is 1: 4000
23. IOC for pulmonary sequestration is:
a. MRI
b. CT
c. Angiography
d. Echocardiography
24. Haegman factor deficiency leads to:
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
25. Commonest cause of 1st trimester abortion is:
a. Chromosomal causes
b. Infection
c. Cervical incompetence
d. Congenital malformation
26. MTP can be done till the age of:
a. 12 weeks
b. 20 weeks
c. 24 weeks
d. Any gestation
27. 18-year-old female with normal looking genitals and well developed breasts. Patient’s axillary hair and pubic hair are absent with primary amenorrhea. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. mullerian agenesis
b. Turner syndrome
c. Testicular feminization syndrome
d. Muller rokitansy kauser syndrome.
28. A person can hear in the range of 56-78 decibel range. Which is the type of hearing loss?
a. Mild
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. None
29. All are complications of episiotomy except:
a. Complete tear
b. Chronic constipation
c. urethrovesical fistula
d. Rectovaginal fistula
30. Hypercalcemia is seen with:
a. Digeorge syndrome
b. Calcitonin nasay spray
c. Bisphosphonates
d. Hyperparathyroidism
31. Most common pituitary tumor is:
a. Hamartoma
b. Prolactinoma
c. ACTH producing adenoma
d. TSH producing adenoma
32. Bishop score includes all except;
a. Cervical length
b. Consistency
c. Presenting part
d. Station of head.
OPTHAL
33. Most common conjuntival tumor is :
a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Squamous cell cancer
c. Meiobomian cell cancer
d. Squamous cell cancer.
34. Management of dendritic ulcer is done by:
a. Acyclovir
b. Gancyclovir
c. X
d. x
35. Photo Opthalmia is seen with:
a. Infra red
b. Ultra violet rays
c. Electric arc
d. X
36. In perforated corneal ulcer, best management shall be:
a. Corneal Flap
b. Lens implantation
c. Glue
d. x
37. Vagus innervation is maximum in:
a. Stomach
b. Anal spincter
c. Urethra
d. Diaphragm
38. Gluta thione is
a. oligo-peptide
b. dipeptide
c. Tri- peptide
d. x
39. CPT synthatase/ 1st enzyme of urea cycle is located in:
a. Intra-mitochondrial
b. cytosolic
c. Nuclear
d. Ribosome
40. Ankle joint valgus is associated with paralysis of which muscle?
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
41. Nerve supplying area around the ear
a. x
b. x
c. x
d.
42. osteo-arthritis in the knee joint involves commonly the :
a. patello- femoral joint
b. Medial compartment
c. Lateral compartment
d. x
43. Incorrect of the following list prodrugs is
a. enalapril
b. methyldopa
c. mercapto purine
d. amrinone
44. Most common type of schizophrenia is:
a. Catatonic
b. Hebephrenic
c. X
d. x
45. Hyperkinesia in children is seen with which anti –epileptic drug?
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
46. 25 yr old pregnant woman with drug induced Peptic ulcer disease should not be given which of the following?
a. Misoprostol
b. Famotidine
c. rantidine
d. Omeprazole
47. The nerve involved in carpal tunnel syndrome is:
a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. muscualocutaneous
d. x
48. Nail changes in lichen planus :
a. Sub ungula hyperkeratosis
b. Salmon patch
c. Splinter hemorrhage
d. X
1. False negative tuberculin test is seen in all except:
a. Miliary TB
b. Post measles state
c. Post steroid intake
d. Earlier Mantoux test
2. Cancer seen with HIV are all except:
a. Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Non Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Cervical cancer
d. Stomach cancer
3. All are seen in AIDS except:
a. Hemotoxylin bodies
b. Kaposi sarcoma
c. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
d. Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis
4. SAP is increased in all except:
a. Hepatitis
b. Cholangitis
c. Pregnancy
d. Obstructive jaundice
5. 30 yr old patient with sever hematemesis episode last week. The patient has been on medication for past 2 weeks,never had jaundice and has a co- existent splenomegaly. The most probable diagnosis is :
a. Oeso-phageal varices due to portal hypertension
b. PUD
c. Drug induced gastric erosions
d. Cirrhosis
6. All are seen with hypothyroidism except;
a. Carpal tunnel syndrome
b. Moist palms
c. Alopecia
d. Pericardial effusions
7. Gastric ulcer are associated with
a. Malignancy
b. Pancreatitis
c. Hyper chlorhydria
d. mentriers disease
8. USG in Chronic failure shows:
a. Granular enlarged kidney
b. Unilateral scarred kidney
c. Bilateral shrunken kidney
d. Bilateral cystic kidney
9. Macro-vesicular fatty liver is seen with:
a. Pregnancy
b. Steroids
c. INH
d. Reye syndrome
10. Coup de chaleur is:
a. Heat stroke
b. Heat exhaustion
c. Heat syncope
d. Heat hyperpyrexia
11. Female patient with asthma and HTN, the best drug for her HTN shall be
a. Propranolol
b. labetalol
c. metoprolol
d. carvedilol
12. Tumor associated with H. Pylori is
a. MALTOMA
b. Burkitt lymphoma
c. X
d. X
13. IOC for pulmonary embolism:
a. V/P
b. MRA
c. CTA
d. Conventional angiography
14. Best for diagnosis of fat embolism:
a. Xenon scan
b. Angiography
c. CT
d. D Dimer assay
e.
15. Most common complication of endotracheal intubation is:
a. Blockage
b. Displacement
c. Subglottic stenosis
d. Laryngeal edema
16. Maximum sodium channels are seen in:
a. Neurons
b. Initial segment exons
c. exon form myelin sheath
d. axon hillock
17. For coagulation studies the sample is taken in:
a. Citrate
b. Heparin
c. EDTA
d. Federlate
18. Copper toxicity is best managed by:
a. ZINC
b. Iron
c. Gold
d. Silver
19. False statement about gut is:
a. Iron is absorbed from the distal ileum
b. Folic acid absorbed from jejunum
c. B12 requires intrinsic factor produced by parietal cells
d. Xylose absorbtion test used for small intestinal malabsorbtion.
20. Longest acting Beta1 agonist is:
a. formoterol
b. bambuterol
c. albuterol
d. salmeterol
21. Not contraindication for transcutaneous liver biopsy is:
a. Biliary obstruction
b. INR> 1.5
c. Portal HTN
d. Hemagioma
22. False about Temporal arteritis is:
a. Seen in old age females
b. > 50yr of age
c. Migraine
d. Incidence is 1: 4000
23. IOC for pulmonary sequestration is:
a. MRI
b. CT
c. Angiography
d. Echocardiography
24. Haegman factor deficiency leads to:
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
25. Commonest cause of 1st trimester abortion is:
a. Chromosomal causes
b. Infection
c. Cervical incompetence
d. Congenital malformation
26. MTP can be done till the age of:
a. 12 weeks
b. 20 weeks
c. 24 weeks
d. Any gestation
27. 18-year-old female with normal looking genitals and well developed breasts. Patient’s axillary hair and pubic hair are absent with primary amenorrhea. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. mullerian agenesis
b. Turner syndrome
c. Testicular feminization syndrome
d. Muller rokitansy kauser syndrome.
28. A person can hear in the range of 56-78 decibel range. Which is the type of hearing loss?
a. Mild
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. None
29. All are complications of episiotomy except:
a. Complete tear
b. Chronic constipation
c. urethrovesical fistula
d. Rectovaginal fistula
30. Hypercalcemia is seen with:
a. Digeorge syndrome
b. Calcitonin nasay spray
c. Bisphosphonates
d. Hyperparathyroidism
31. Most common pituitary tumor is:
a. Hamartoma
b. Prolactinoma
c. ACTH producing adenoma
d. TSH producing adenoma
32. Bishop score includes all except;
a. Cervical length
b. Consistency
c. Presenting part
d. Station of head.
OPTHAL
33. Most common conjuntival tumor is :
a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Squamous cell cancer
c. Meiobomian cell cancer
d. Squamous cell cancer.
34. Management of dendritic ulcer is done by:
a. Acyclovir
b. Gancyclovir
c. X
d. x
35. Photo Opthalmia is seen with:
a. Infra red
b. Ultra violet rays
c. Electric arc
d. X
36. In perforated corneal ulcer, best management shall be:
a. Corneal Flap
b. Lens implantation
c. Glue
d. x
37. Vagus innervation is maximum in:
a. Stomach
b. Anal spincter
c. Urethra
d. Diaphragm
38. Gluta thione is
a. oligo-peptide
b. dipeptide
c. Tri- peptide
d. x
39. CPT synthatase/ 1st enzyme of urea cycle is located in:
a. Intra-mitochondrial
b. cytosolic
c. Nuclear
d. Ribosome
40. Ankle joint valgus is associated with paralysis of which muscle?
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
41. Nerve supplying area around the ear
a. x
b. x
c. x
d.
42. osteo-arthritis in the knee joint involves commonly the :
a. patello- femoral joint
b. Medial compartment
c. Lateral compartment
d. x
43. Incorrect of the following list prodrugs is
a. enalapril
b. methyldopa
c. mercapto purine
d. amrinone
44. Most common type of schizophrenia is:
a. Catatonic
b. Hebephrenic
c. X
d. x
45. Hyperkinesia in children is seen with which anti –epileptic drug?
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
46. 25 yr old pregnant woman with drug induced Peptic ulcer disease should not be given which of the following?
a. Misoprostol
b. Famotidine
c. rantidine
d. Omeprazole
47. The nerve involved in carpal tunnel syndrome is:
a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. muscualocutaneous
d. x
48. Nail changes in lichen planus :
a. Sub ungula hyperkeratosis
b. Salmon patch
c. Splinter hemorrhage
d. X
Sunday, May 3, 2009
DIAMS visits china in may 2009
DIAMS the premier institute for MCI coaching is visiting China from 9th may to 13 may and would be introducing the students to the intricacies and the details of medical council on india screening test that has the most of the students develop PROCOTALGIA FUGAX.
so the one stop solution for all your MCI needs ...DIAMS
so the one stop solution for all your MCI needs ...DIAMS
Thursday, January 8, 2009
MCI 2008 sept
Medicine September 2008
1. Carotid sinus massage acts via controlling the heart rate by:
a. Decreasing AV blockage
b. Decreasing SA node discharge
c. Increasing AV blockade
d. Increasing Absolute refractory period of purkinje fibres
2. Carotid sinus massage should be given for duration of? --------To prevent death
a. 10 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 30seconds
d. 60seconds
3. Prophylaxis for meninigococcal meningitis is:
a. Tetracycline
b. Rifampicin
c. Sulfadiazine
d. Trimethoprim
4. Shampoo preapartion is all except:
a. Selenium
b. ketoconazole
c. x
d. x
5. Splenomegaly is a feature of
a. Hereditary spherocytosis
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
6. All are used in management of burns except:
a. Eusol
b. Silver sulphadiazine
c. Savlon
d. Betadine
7. More bleeding occurs in scalp because of:
a. Separation of ruptured ends of blood vessels due to separation of galea aponeurotica
b. Relatively More vascular area
c. Sub-periosteal bleeding from emissary veins
d. Tortous course of scalp blood vessels
8. Epleys maneurver is used for management of?
a. Beningn positional paroxysmal vertigo
b. Acoustic neuroma
c. Menerier’s disease
d. otosclerosis
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is caused by a rapid change in head movement. The person feels they or their surroundings are moving or rotating. Common causes are head trauma or ear infection. BPPV can be caused by debris in the semicircular canal of the ear that continues to move after the head has stopped moving. This causes a sensation of ongoing movement that conflicts with other sensory information. The review of trials found the Epley manoeuvre (four specific movements of the head and body designed to move the debris out the ear canal) is safe and effective.
http://www.cochrane.org/reviews/en/ab003162.html
9. Tracheostomy three mcq on upper middle and lower Tracheostomy?
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
10. Site of appendix incision?
a. Junction middle and outer third of line joining umbilicus with ant sup iliac spine
b. Junction middle and inner third of line joining umbilicus with ant sup iliac spine
c. Junction inner and outer third of line joining umbilicus with ant sup iliac spine
d. Junction inner and outer third of line joining umbilicus with ant sup iliac spine
11. Marcus Gunn pupil seen in?
a. Neurosyphilis
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Gullian barre syndrome.
Explanation: answer is C
Choice C: MARCUS GUNN pupil is weird pupil, which does not have a direct light reflex but has a consensual light reflex. HOW? Read on …………………………
Light reflex has an afferent pathway of optic and efferent pathway through Occulomotor nerve. The afferent info is sent via the lateral geniculate body to the edinger Westphal nucleus located in the midbrain. The basic point to be understood is that the Edinger westphal nucleus has a bilateral discharge i.e. if you shine a torch in lets say left eye of the patient, the left eye of the patient shows pupillary constriction known as DIRECT LIGHT reflex and the opposite eye also shows papillary constriction known as CONSENSUAL light reflex.
Multiple sclerosis as per English language means gliosis at multiple sites in the brain. These sites of gliosis are known as plaques and can be seen in an MRI. The plaques have a propensity to involve the optic pathway, mainly the optic pathway.
Assuming In case only the left optic nerve is affected the DIRECT light reflex on the left side will be afflicted. So the pupil on left side is not constricting. In these circumstances you shall now swing your torchlight to the right side and voila!!!! You manage to stimulate the edinger westphal nucleus, which has a bilateral discharge. You get a direct light reflex in the right eye and a consensual light reflex in the left eye.
Choice A: neurosyphilis has ARGYL ROBERTSON pupil. [Read it as ARP: ACCOMODATION reflex present, PRA – Pupillary reflex absent.]
Choice B: Diabetes mellitus neuropathy can have 3rd nerve palsy with pupillary sparing as per Harrison so light reflex would be preserved.
Choice D: Gullian Barre syndrome is a de-myelinating disorder of the spinal cord presenting with ASCENDING SYMETRICAL FLACCID paralysis. The cranial nerve involved in GBS is the 7th nerve and therefore can be easily excluded.
12. A pregnant woman on phenytoin presents to your clinic, which shall be the best recommendation for her?
a. Continue phenytoin add folic acid
b. Start phenobarbitone
c. Start phenobarbitone and folic acid
d. Start vigarbatrin and folic acid
EXPLANATION: answer is C
Phenytoin causes folic acid deficiency, which is obviously going to cause a dimorophic anemia in the mother. But at the same time the folic acid deficiency has been categorically linked to neural tube defects NTD, the most common being spina bifida occulta.
Hence it is prudent that phenytoin be withdrawn and cover up with phenobarbitone be recommended but with a COVER Of folic acid 0.4mg once a day.
13. Thyrotoxicosis patient presents with palpitations to the OPD. Best immediate management shall be?
a. Propranolol
b. Start propylthiouracil with propranolol
c. Start levothyroxine
d. Start carbimazole with iodine drops
EXPLANATION: ANSWER IS A
Thyroid hormones have a sympathomimetic effect via beta 1 receptors causing palpitations. At the same time they act via beta 2 receptors to cause tremors. Adding fuel to the fire is increased BMR causing heat intolerance.
Since this query does not talk about atrial fibrillation but simple presentation of the patient to the OPD the best answer shall be non selective beta blocker – propranolol.
Choice B would be prudent in case the question talked about a thyroid storm where propyl-thioracil would also prevent formation of T3 form T4
Choice C is used for hypothyroidism
Choice D is used for preoperative management of toxic nodular goiter to prevent the onset of thyroid storm
THYROTOXICOSIS
Primary
Secondary
Cause
L.A.T.S. long acting thyroid stimulator antibody, which mimics TSH.
Remember its different from T.P.O. thyroid peroxidase antibody which is seen in Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Pituitary adenoma
Manifestations
Young patient mainly women
Bilateral PROPTOSIS +
MYXEDEMA+
ACROPACHY+
No gender predilection
PROPTOSIS absent
MYXEDEMA absent
ACROPACHY absent
ATRIAL FIBRILLATION present
14. A patient of Tuberculosis present with malaise, fatigue and hyperpigmentation on flexural creases. On lab investigation sodium is 120meq /dl and potassium is 6.5meq/dl. Most probable diagnosis is
a. Addison disease
b. Conn syndrome
c. Secondary Hyperaldosteronism
d. Simmond syndrome
Explanation: Answer is A
Every time you read in any MCQ sodium and potassium values given together the MCQ is obviously gonna talk about aldosterone. The basic action of aldosterone is sodium and water reabsorbtion through the distal tubule and in return gives away potassium. Potassium is precious so after a while the body gives up losing potassium and in turn loses hydrogen ions.
Normal values
Sodium = 135-145meq/dl
Potassium = 3.5-5.5meq/dl
MCQ data states
Hyponatremia
Hyperkalemia
So obviously this MCQ is about hypo aldosteronism. Moreover the cementing point in its favor is hyper pigmentation due to ACTH increase by feedback mechanism.
Tuberculosis dissemination involves various organs incidence wise: peritoneum, genitourinary, Potts spine and adrenal in that order. So in this case TB has spread to the adrenal gland and damaged it causing Addison disease.
Most common cause of ADDISON disease is autoimmunity globally bout in India is TB
The manifestations are weakness due salt wasting, hyper pigmentation, Hyponatremia, Hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis.
The IOC is ACTH stimulation test that will fail [miserably ………the gland is damaged.]
Drug support would be salt intake to be increased to 8gms /day with FLUDORCORTSIONE which has a high mineralo-corticoid activity.
15. Zollinger Ellison syndrome the best diagnostic protocol:
a. 24 hr basal acid output and maximal acid output.
b. 24 hr secretin study
c. 24 hr gastrin study
d. Histamine stimulation test
16. Bitemporal hemianopia is seen with
a. Pituitary tumor
b. Empty sella syndrome
c. Optic tract damage
d. Occipital cortex damage
17. Definitive diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma?
a. 24 hr urinary catecholamines
b. MIBG Scan
c. CTU
d. Metapyrone test
18. Vessel rupture in hypertension in all parts of the brain except:
a. Temporal lobe
b. Thalamus
c. Cerebellum
d. Putamen
ICH, bleeding occurs directly into the brain parenchyma. The usual mechanism is thought to be leakage from small intracerebral arteries damaged by chronic hypertension. Other mechanisms include bleeding diatheses, iatrogenic anticoagulation, cerebral amyloidosis, and cocaine abuse. ICH has a predilection for certain sites in the brain, including the thalamus, putamen, cerebellum, and brain stem. In addition to the area of the brain injured by the hemorrhage, the surrounding brain can be damaged by pressure produced by the mass effect of the hematoma. A general increase in intracranial pressure may occur.
http://www.emedicine.com/EMERG/topic557.htm
19. Most common cause of mortality after 70 yrs of age?
a. Cardiovascular mortality
b. Diabetes mellitus and complications
c. Peripheral vascular disease
d. Mesenteric insufficiency
20. Which is a pre-cancerous lesion of esophagus
a. barret esophagus
b. peutz jehgers
c. crohn disease
d. Ulcerative colitis
21. Recurrent episodes of Blood stained sputum can be the presenting symptom of?
a. Bronchial adenoma
b. Cavity
c. Bronchiectasis
d. Tuberculosis
22. Lesion of the caudate lobe of basal ganglia causes
a. Chorea
b. atheotosis
c. hemiballismus
d. Intentional tremors
EXPLANATION: The answer is A
Chorea
Atheotosis
Hemiballismus
Lesion of caudate nucleus
Remember the C word
Lesion of putamen
Lesion of subthalaamic nucleus
Involuntary proximal movements eg shrugging of shoulders
Involuntary distal movements eg snake head like movement of hand
Combo of proximal and distal involuntary movements eg involuntary flinging of the arms
Choice D is intentional tremors, which are seen in patients of cerebellar disease.
23. Deficiency of which vitamin does not cause anemia?
a. Biotin
b. Pyridoxine
c. Folic acid
d. B12
24. Punched out lesion in the skull is seen in:
a. Mutiple myeloma
b. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Pagets disease
d. Osteopetrosis
25. Closed Pneumothorax, the best position of the CXR shall be?
a. Expiration in erect position
b. Lateral decubitus position
c. Inspiration in erect position
d. Inspiration in lateral decubitus position.
26. Wide fixed split S2 is seen in:
a. ASD
b. VSD
c. PDA
d. TOF
27. Thrombocytopenia is diagnosed by
a. Bleeding time
b. Clotting time
c. Prothrombin time
d. Activated partial thromboplastin time
28. Extrinsic pathway is measured by
a. BT
b. CT
c. APTT
d. PT
29. Hemophilia pattern of inheritance is:
a. XLR
b. XLD
c. AR
d. AD
30. Digitalis toxicity is managed by:
a. Potassium
b. digiband
c. amiodarone
d. lignocaine
31. Preserved blood does not contain
a. Citrate
b. Heparin
c. Dextrose
d. Phosphate
32. Tumor marker for pancreatic cancer
a. Ca19.9
b. Ca –125
c. BRCA
d. CEA
33. Lumbar puncture needle doesn’t puncture
a. supraspinatus
b. infraspinatus
c. ligamentum flavum
d. x
34. CSF glucose levels are reduced in all of the following except:
a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Viral meningitis
c. Tubercular meningitis
d. Subdural Empyema
35. Diagnostic procedure for kala azar can be which of the following?
a. Indirect fluoroscent antibody test
b. L.D. bodies in splenic aspirate
c. Aldehyde test
d. ELISA
36. Most dangerous toxin is:
a. botulinism
b. x
c. x
d. x
37. NNN media is used for diagnosis of
a. Brucella
b. Leshmania
c. ankylostoma
d. strongyloides stercoralis
38. Young female with complaints of dysnea on exertion and related symptoms of heart etiology. Best modality for investigation shall be:
a. CXR
b. ECG
c. Echocardiography
d. Angiography
39. The following can cause Hypocalcemia
a. calcitonin
b. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Lithium therapy
40. The following vitamin is given with vitamin D for osteoporosis
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin E
41. Least common fungal infection in immunocompromised hosts shall be:
a. Malazzia furfur
b. Cryptosporidium
c. Candida
d. Penicillium marafucci
Malassezia furfur a lipophilic yeast causes pityriasis versicolor , follicular titriasis, sebborheic dermatitis .
Penicillium marafucci causes hyalohyphomycosis.
42. All are features of hypothyroidism except
a. pretibial myxedema
b. Puffiness of face
c. Low voltage ECG
d. Alopecia and constipation
43. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is caused by:
a. Deficiency of insulin
b. Excess of insulin
c. Resistance to insulin
d. Defective structure of insulin
44. Most common Valvular lesion after MI is seen in:
a. Mitral regurgitation
b. Mitral stenosis
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Aortic regurgitation
45. Auer rods are seen in:
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CML
d. CLL
46. Falciparum malaria causes all except:
a. blackwater fever
b. Algid malaria
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Alkalosis
47. Splenomegaly is not seen in:
a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Gaucher
c. TORCH
d. Kala Azar
48. Bilaterally shrunken kidneys are seen in:
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Amyloidosis
c. Hydronephrosis
d. Renal vein thrombosis
49. Daily sodium requirement per day would be?
a. 3-5gm
b. 300mg-500mg
c. 3ug- 5ug
d. 3-5mg
50. FTA –ABS is used for diagnosis of
a. Syphilis
b. Borrelia
c. Brucella
d. Lyme disease
Pathology
51. curcshman spirals are seen in:
a. Bronchial asthma
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Acute bronchitis
d. Bronchiectasis
Pharmacology
52. Anti-diabetic drug which causes weight loss shall be:
a. metformin
b. phenformin
c. glibenclamide
d. repaglinide
53. Anti- diabetic drug that does not cause hypoglycemia shall be
a. tolbutamide
b. repaglinide
c. chlorpropamide
d. acarbose
54. Regimen for hodgkins lymphoma
a. ABVD
b. MOPP
c. CHOP
d. MECOPP
55. Renal toxicity is highest for:
a. Azathiorpine
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Vincristine
d. Sirolimus
56. Maintenance therapy for uncomplicated bipolar disorder is
a. Lithium
b. Olenzapine
c. mainserin
d. haloperidol
57. Timolol maleate acts by
a. Increasing trabecular outflow
b. Increasing uveoscleral outflow
c. Decreased production of aqueous humor production.
d. Increased production of aqueous humor production.
58. pilocarpine mechanism of action in glaucoma
59. Mechanism of action of sulfonylaurea:
a. Increase insulin release
b. Decrease of insulin release
c. Increase GLUT 4 receptors
d. Increase sensitivity of insulin receptors
60. Bromocriptine mechanism of action:
61. mifeprisotne is an:
a. abortifacient
b. x
c. x
d. x
62. Drug dependence means
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
63. Fluoride toxicity is seen with:
a. methoxyflurane
b.
64. Competitive antagonist is:
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
65. Myasthenia gravis is resistant to which drug:
a. depolarisingmuscle relaxant
b. Non depolarizing muscle relaxant
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Ophthalmology
66. Distance direct opthalmoscopy can detect all except:
a. Retinal detachment
b. Macular edema
c. Vitreous hemorrhage
d. x
67. All are false for retinoblastoma except:
a. 60% chances of death
b. Translocation of 11q 14
c. 50% chance of transmission
d. Mean age of diagnosis at 5yrs
http://www.emedicine.com/RADIO/topic604.htm
About 60% of patients have unilateral RB, with a mean age at diagnosis of 24 months, and about 40% have bilateral RB, with a mean age at diagnosis of 15 months. Mutations in the RB gene (chromosomal location 13q14) predispose individuals to the disease
The mortality rate associated with optic nerve invasion up to the lamina cribrosa is 15%; beyond the lamina cribrosa, the rate is 44%; and to the line of resection, the rate is 65%.
Preferred Examination
Detailed ophthalmologic examination includes indirect ophthalmoscopy, examination under anesthesia, visual field charting, and visual acuity testing. Routine systemic evaluations are performed, such as complete blood cell counts, liver function studies, and kidney function studies.
Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy can be used as a diagnostic modality in select intraocular tumors and similar conditions. In advanced cases, a metastatic workup must be performed, including a bone marrow biopsy, CSF cytologic tests for malignant cells, and bone scanning
Management
External-beam irradiation
External-beam irradiation is not used as often as some other therapies because of long-term radiation complications—the most important of which is the development of radiation-induced tumors—and because of greater success with other modalities (Shields et al, 2004). Patients with RB have a higher-than-normal incidence of secondary tumors, which is further increased by radiation. Radiation also arrests bone growth, resulting in an asymmetrical face. This treatment is, however, useful in patients who have progressive disease despite chemotherapy or who have marked vitreous spread.
Plaque radiation therapy
Plaque radiation therapy delivers radiation in a more localized manner than external-beam radiation, which, theoretically, should minimize development of radiation-induced tumors. Plaque radiation therapy is more effective for larger tumors than cryotherapy and photocoagulation. However, plaque radiotherapy has a higher incidence of localized radiation complications involving the optic nerve and retina. Commonly used plaques are cobalt-60 (60Co) and ruthenium-106 (106Ru).
Cobalt-60 ophthalmic plaques
Cobalt-60 eye plaques were the first type of plaque therapy used for intraocular tumors and act as a high-energy source. 60Co rings are encased in a platinum shell that does not block the radiation; therefore, 60Co eye plaques send out radiation in all directions. On a standard radiograph, a 60Co eye plaque demonstrates a spherical distribution of radiation.
Ruthenium-106 ophthalmic plaques
Ruthenium-106 ophthalmic plaques emit beta particles, which typically travel 4-5 mm into the eye. High-energy bremsstrahlung photons are also emitted, although they are minor components of the radiation dose.
Low-energy plaques
Low-energy plaques have largely replaced 60Co and 106Ru sources for plaque radiation therapy.
Treatment of metastasis
Post enucleation adjuvant therapy is safe and effective in that it significantly reduces the occurrence of metastasis in patients with RB that has high-risk histo-pathologic characteristics.
68. Causes of ectopia lentis are all except:
a. refsum disease
b. ehler danlos
c. aniridia
d. hyperlysinemia
69. Snow flake cataract is seen in:
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Galactosemia
c. Anderson disease
d. Myotonic Dystrophy
70. Young girl with trauma with a cracker in one eye presents with pain in the other eye after one month. The diagnosis shall be:
a. Sympathetic opthalmitis
b. Anterior iridocyclitis
c. Eale’s disease
d. Vitreous hemorrhage
71. All of the following cause cataract except:
a. Steroids
b. miotics
c. x
d. x
72. rubeosis iridis is seen in:
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. CRVO
c. Eales disease
d. Myotonic dystrphy
73. All of the following cause follicular conjunctivits except:
a. Chylamydia
b. Adenovirus
c. Allergy
d. X
74. Best investigation for best disease is:
a. EOG
b. Direct opthlmoscopy
c. VEP
d. Optokinetic nystagmus
75. In a retina diagram:
a. Detached retina is red
b. Attached retina is blue
c. Detached retina is green
d. Attached retina is green
76. All of the following form the orbit except:
a. Anterior and posterior wall of ethmoid
b. Sphenoid
c. trochlear fossa
d. Frontal process of maxilla
77. S in SAFE strategy for Trachoma is:
a. Surgery
b. Sanitation
c. Sulfonamides
d. All of the above
Radiology
78. Right border of the heart is not formed by:
a. Aortic bulb
b. Right ventricle
c. Right atrium
d. Auricle right
79. Gallium scan are used for all except:
a. Sarcoidosis
b. HL
c. NHL
d. Cardiac output
80. X rays are discovered by:
a. Roentogen
b. Madam curie
c. Piccasso
d. Michalengelo
81. For thyroid scan which of the following are used:
a. I 131
b. I 1123
c. B
d. J
82. Double bubble appearance is seen in:
a. Duodenal atresia
b. ileal atresia
c. Meckel’s dicvericulum
d. gastrochisis
Forensic medicine
83. Vitreous humor is preserved in:
a. Arsenic poison
b. Ethylene glycol
c. dhatura
d. organophosphorus poisoning
84. Beveling of the inner table of the skull is found in:
a. Entry wound
b. Exit wound
c. Stab wound
d. Penetrating injury
Orthopedics
85. TB commonly afflicts which joint?
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Vertebra
d. Elbow
86. myositis ossificans traumatica is common in:
a. Elbow
b. Hip
c. Shoulder
d. Knee
87. Trendelenburg test is positive due to
a. Weakness of gluteus medius and minimus
b. X
c. X
d. X
88. Most common metastasis to vertebra is:
a. Secondaries
b. X
c. X
d. X
89. Acute osteomyleitis is seen commonly with:
a. staphylocccccus aureus
b. Streptococcus viridans
c. enterococcus
d. Salmonella typhi
90. Complication of fracture of lateral condyle of elbow are all except:
a. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy
b. Non union
c. valgus
d. x
ENT
91. Immediate tracheostomy is not done in:
a. Acute severe asthma
b. Laryngeal carcinoma causing stridor
c. Foreign body
d. X
92. otospongiosis is a common focus in:
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. circumventricular
d.
93. Bone which does not take part in formation of nasal septum
a. Lacrimal
b. Frontal
c. Vomer
d. Nasal
94. Acoustic neuroma
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
95. Recurrent papilloma in the larynx is best treated by:
a. Cryosurgery
b. radiotheraphy
c. Laser
d. x
96. MC congenital anomaly of larynx is:
a. laryngomalacia
b. x
c. x
d. x
97. Distance beween incisor and cricophyranx:
a. X
b. X
c. C
d. X
Surgery
98. Breast abscess is mainly caused by:
a. Staphy locus aureus
b. Streptococcus
c. X
d. X
99. Intermittent claudication with rest pain is
a. Pain while hanging the leg, walking and persists on elevation of leg
b. Pain only while hanging the leg
c. Pain on hanging the leg and walking
d. Pain only on walking
100. varicocele in left sided testis is caused by:
a. left sided hydronephrosis
b. x
c. x
d. x
101. Treatment of choice for a seminoma stage 1
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
102. Urinary incontinence in older patients is due to:
a. a x
b. x
c. x
d. x
103. While catheterization of urethra which part of the urethra is most prone to rupture?
a. a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
104. Pre-malignant lesion of breast
a. ductal ectasia
b. x
c. x
d. x
105. Congenital hydrocele is best managed by:
a. Aspiration
b. x
c. x
d. x
106. Narrowest part of small intestine is
a. a x
b. x
c. x
d. x
107. Pouch of doughlas is seen between
a. Rectum and vagina
b. x
c. x
d. x
108. sialdolithiasis is seen with:
a. xx
b. x
c. x
d. x
109. Cholesterol stones in gall bladder?
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
110. Most common cause of solitary adenoma of thyroid is
a. multinodualr goiter
b. Adenoma
c. Carcinoma
d. Thyroiditis
111. Fournier gangrene afflicts
a. Scrotum
b. Abdominal wall
c. Rectum
d. Anus
112. subcapsular orchidectomy is done for :
a. Cancer prostate
b. Cancer testis
c. Ca penis
d. Cancer bladder
113. Complication of total parenteral nutrition is :
a. Hyperkalemia
b. X
c. X
d. X
OBG and GYNAE
114. 3rd degree perineal tear should be repaired by
a. Within 24 hrs
b. Within 48hrs
c. Within 3 weeks
d. Within 6 weeks
115. Urethral injury in case of obstrucuted labor is best managed by:
a. LSCS
b. Hysterectomy
c. Continous cathreterization for 14 days
d. Conservative
Psychiatry
116. A young woman after stress leaves home and goes to another place and then returns to her house one and a half months later. The most Probable diagnosis shall be:
a. Dissociative fugue
b. Adjustment disorder
c. Schizophrenia
d. Schizophreniform disorder
117. In dementia what is absent:
a. Global intelligence
b. X
c. X
d. X
118. Alcohol withdrawal symptoms:
a. Tremors
b. Palpitations
c. x
d. x
Dermatology
119. Erythroderma is seen in all except:
a. Mycosis fungoides
b. psoriaisis
c. x
d. x
Physiology
120. Immunoglobulin passing through the placenta is:
a. IG A
b. IGG
c. IGE
d. IGD
121. Buffer of interstitial fluid is:
a. H2 PO4
b. X
c. X
d. x
122. Glucose is maximally absorbed in:
a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Distal convoluted tubule
c. Collecting duct
d. Xx
123. Inverse stretch reflex is mediated through
a. golgi tendon
b. x
c. x
d. x
124. Extra-cellular fluid has mainly which cation
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Phosphate
125. Glucose uses which transporter for absorbtion through gut
a. GLUT1
b. GLUT2
c. GLUT3
d. SGLT1
126. Water absorption and urine production is mediated by
a. ADH
b. X
c. X
d. X
Biochemistry
127. Largest store of glycogen is seen in:
a. Liver
b. Muscle
c. x
d. x
128. NADPH has a role mainly in:
a. Energy production
b. X
c. X
d. X
129. Major breakdown product of triglycerides is
a. Fatty acid
b. Xx
c. X
d. X
130. In starvation body mainly uses:
a. ketone bodies
b. x
c. x
d. x
131. RBC enzyme is
a. HMP
b. X
c. X
d. x
132. codon
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
133. amphibolic reaction is seen in:
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
134. cytochrome oxidase inhibitor is :
a. Cyanide
b. Phosphate
c. Phosgene
d. acarbose
135. DNA contains all except:
a. uracil
b. Adenine
c. Guanine
d. thymine
Anatomy
136. Nerve supply of hypo-thenar muscles is:
a. Ulnar
b. Median
c. x
d. x
137. Length of cartilaginous part of Eustachian tube shall be:
a. 8cm
b. 10cm
c. 15cm
d. 20cm
138. Length of esophagus
a. 25cm
b. 30cm
c. 40cm
d. 45cm
139. Nerve present below 3rd molar tooth is:
a. x
b. x
c. x
d. x
140. Shape of cartilage of trachea is:
a. Horse shoe
b. Circle
c. x
d. x
141. Clavipectoral fascia is pierced by all except:
a. Lateral pectoral nerve
b. Medial pectoral nerve
c. x
d. x
SPM
142. All show herd immunity except:
a. Measles
b. Chickenpox
c. Rabies
d. Mumps
143. Incineration is done for:
a. x
b. x
c. x
d.
144. Extra calories required in a lactating mother
a. 150kcal
b. 300kcal
c. 550kcal
d. 750kcal
145. Total dose of vitamin A in vitamin A prophylaxis pprgramme is:
a. 2 lacs iu
b. 5lacs iu
c. 9lacs iu
d. 15 lacs iu
146. BOAA causes:
a. Endemic ascites
b. lathyrism
c. x
d. x
147. Standard deviation is a measure of:
a. Central tendancy
b. x
c. x
d. x
148. Normal water supply per head in rural india
a. 20litres
b. 40litres
c. 60litres
d. 80 litres
149. All of the following are indicators of obesity except:
a. Pearl index
b. Body mass index
c. Xx
d. Xx
150. HIV prevention encompasses all except:
a. Behavioral communication
b. Provision of condoms
c. Treatment of STD
d. Giving ART
151. BMI is:
a. Weight by height
b. Height by weight
c. Surface area by height
d. Weight by surface area
Microbiology
152. Staphylococcus causes vomiting by which mechanism:
a. x
b. x
c. xx
d. x
153. Cellulitis is commonly caused by:
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. x
d. x
154. All of the following cause diarrhea except:
a. Rotavirus
b. Norwalk virus
c. Astrovirus
d. All of above
155. negri bodies for ante-mortem diagnosis of rabies are seen in
a. Saliva
b. Eye
c. Brain
d. Heart
156. Malignant pustule is seen in;
a. Anthrax
b. x
c. x
d. x
Pediatrics
157. SSPE is a complication of
a. Measles
b. Mumps
c. Rubella
d. Hepatitis
158. Rickets radiological features are;
a. Widening cupping and splaying of distal end of radius
b. Widening cupping and splaying of distal end of femur
c. White line of calcification
d. Fraying of distal end of ulna
159. Frenkel line and Wimberger sign is seen in:
a. Scurvy
b. Rickets
c. Enhler Danlos
d. Muco-polysaccharidosis
160. koplik spots are seen in :
a. Measles
b. Mumps
c. Rubella
d. Hepatitis D
161. Surfactant is produced by?
a. Type 2 pneumocytes
b. Type 1 pneumocytes
c. Pores of kahn
d. Cuboidal lining of surfactant
162. Normal birth weight of a baby shall be:
a. 2.5kg
b. 2.7kg
c. 2.8kg
d. 3.0kg
163. Physiological jaundice is not seen in which of the following on the first day of life of a baby?
a. Low birth weight baby
b. G 6PD deficiency
c. Term small for date baby
d. Term large for date baby
164. Physiological jaundice is relieved in how many days?
a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 14 days
165. A child can draw a circle by the age of:
a. 2 yrs
b. 3yrs
c. 4yrs
d. 5yrs
166. 6month old baby with an abdominal mass shall be:
a. Neuroblastoma
b. Wilms tumor
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Cavernous Hemangioma liver
167. Breast milk secretion is mediated by:
a. Prolactin
b. Oxytocin
c. ADH
d. All of above.
168. Commonest leukemia in down syndrome
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CML
d. CLL
169. Zinc deficiency causes
a. acrodermatuitis enterohepatica
b. casal necklace
c. Chronic diarrhea
d. Megalobalstic anemia
170. Dose of folic acid required per day to prevent neural tube defects would be ?
a. 400mcg
b. 400mg
c. 4mg
d. 40mg
171. Urethral anomaly in children is:
a. Stricture
b. x
c. x
d. x
172. Allergic reaction mainly seen with which vaccine
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. Measles
d. OPV
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