Saturday, August 20, 2011
errata - INR Question No. 23 in pharmacology
Thanks Guys for the feedback..In the question no. 23 of INR in pharmacology, the answer would be Vitamin K
Monday, August 15, 2011
MCI 2011
MCI MARCH 2011
PHARMACOLOGY
1. All of the above are used for the management of thyrotoxic crisis except
a. Propylthiourcil
b. Propanolol
c. Oral potassium iodine
d. Levothyroxine *
2. Which of the following drugs is avoided in a patient with serum creatinine of more than 3mg/dl?
a. Gentamicin*
b. Azithromycine
c. Ampicilin
d. Amlodipine
3. Which of the following is NOT an inotropic drug?
a. Amrinone*
b. Isoprenaline
c. Amiodarone
d. Dopamine
4. Baclofen is used in the treatment of
a. Schizophrenia
b. Depression
c. Anxiety
d. Spasticity*
5. Which of the following is used for prophylaxis of rheumatic heart disease?
a. Ampicillin
b. Penicillin-G
c. Bezathine Penicillin*
d. Phenoxy-methyl penicillin
6. Dopamine is preferred over vasopressor agents in shock with oligouria because of its effects related to
a. Better cardiac stimulation
b. Less peripheral vasoconstriction*
c. Lower risk of cardiac arrhythmias
d. More CNS stimulation
7. The treatment of choice of bacterial vaginosis is
a. Clindamycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Ampicillin
d. Metronidazole*
8. The antidote for paracetamol poisoning is
a. Activated charcoal
b. N-acetyl cysteine*
c. Adrenaline
d. Magnesium hydroxide gel
9. all of the following therapeutic uses of corticosteroids are appropriate except
a. beclomethasone in bronchial asthma
b. cortisone for Cushing’s syndrome*
c. prednisolone for rheumatoid arthritis
d. dexamethasone for reducing intracranial pressure
10. Major organ involved in Bleomycin toxicity is
a. Liver
b. Bone marrow
c. Skin
d. Lungs*
11. sulfasalazine is used in
a. ulcerative colitis*
b. osteoarthritis
c. gouty arthritis
d. irritable bowel syndrome
12. Methotrexate toxicity can be treated by
a. Folic acid*
b. Folinic acid
c. Riboflavin
d. Cyanocabalamine
13. In a patient of chronic open glaucoma, which one of the following drugs is NOT useful
a. Pilocarpine
b. Physostigmine
c. Homatropine*
d. Timolol
14. Which one of the following is an adverse effect associated with combined oral contraceptives
a. Cerebral stroke*
b. Aggravation of asthma
c. Peripheral neuropathy
d. Nephritic syndrome
15. All of the following are the feature of atropine poisoning except
a. Mydriasis
b. Hallucinations
c. Hypothermia*
d. Coma
16. All of the following drugs should be avoided in pregnancy except
a. Propylthiouracil*
b. Valproic acid
c. Warfarin
d. Tetracyclines
17. All of the following statements about heparine are true EXCEPT
a. It act by inhibiting factor IIa via its action on anti thrombin III
b. Protamine sulphate is antidote
c. aPTT is used to monitor its effect
d. It has only in vivo anticoagulant action*
18. Allopurinol is a competitive inhibitor of
a. Uricase
b. Xanthine oxidase*
c. Guanase
d. Adenosine deaminase
19. Drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures is
a. Phenytoin
b. Valproate*
c. Ethosuximide
d. Carbamazepine
20. Scabies can be effectively treated systematically by
a. Psoralens
b. Ivermectin*
c. Permethrin
d. Septran
21. The antifungal which has a fungicidal mode of action against dermatophyte infections in therapeutic doses is
a. Fluconazole
b. Terbinafine*
c. Itraconazole
d. Ketoxonazole
22. pulmonary fibrosis is a side effect associated with the use of
a. actinomycin
b. busulfan*
c. doxorubicin
d. mithramycin
23. On a routine check up, a patient on warfarin therapy is found to have an international normalized ratio (INR) of 8. the most appropriate action is to stop the drug said
a. Give vitamin K injection
b. Give fresh frozen plasma infusion*
c. Start low molecular weight heparin
d. Restart warfarin after decrease of INR
24. The drug that is contraindicated in angle closure glaucoma is
a. Pilocarpine
b. Atropine*
c. Dorzolamide
d. Timolol
25. All of the following drugs can cause gynaecomastia except
a. Digoxin
b. Amiloride*
c. Cimetriden
d. Spironolactone
26. all of the following are useful in the management of acute asthma except
a. hydrocortisone intravenously
b. salbutamol inhalation
c. salmeterol inhalation*
d. terbutaline inhalation
27. Which of the following drugs have long post antibiotic effect?
a. Quinolones*
b. Macrolides
c. Tetracyclines
d. Oxazolidinones
28. All of the following are vitamin K dependent coagulation factors except
a. Factor VII
b. Factor VIII*
c. Factor X
d. Protein C
PATHOLOGY
29. The coagulation studies of a patient showed normal prothrombin time and prologation of activated partial thromboplastin tine and bleeding time. The most probable diagnosis is
a. Hemophilia
b. DIC
c. von Willebrand disease*
d. ITP
30. EAV rosetters formation is a characteristic of
a. T cells*
b. B cells
c. Monocytes
d. None of the above
31. Which of the following is NOT a prion associated disease
a. Scrapine
b. Kuru
c. Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease
d. Sub acute sclerozing panencephalitis (SSPE)*
32. Bilateral breast carcinoma occurs commonly in
a. Schirrous carcinoma
b. Medullary carcinoma
c. Colloid carcinoma
d. Lobular carcinoma*
33. The most important prognostic factor for invasive carcinoma of breast is
a. Histological subtype
b. Tumor grade
c. Estrogen and progesterone receptor status
d. Axillary lymph node status*
34. Which is the commonest type of cancer seen in patients wit AIDS?
a. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
b. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
c. Hairy cell leukemia
d. Kaposi sarcoma*
35. all of the following are features of secondary immune response except
a. abundant IgG
b. May be induced any time after primary response
c. Repeatable in physiological limits
d. Latent period of five days before it appears*
36. father to son inheritances is never seen in cases of
a. autosomal dominant inheritance
b. autosomal recessive inheritance
c. multifactorial inheritance
d. X-linked dominant inheritance *
37. The tumor Which is least likely to metastasize to the brain is
a. Prostatic carcinoma*
b. Breast carcinoma
c. Renal cell carcinoma
d. Choriocarcinoma
38. tumor marker for endodermal sinus tumor is
a. CEA
b. hCG
c. Alpha fetoprotein*
d. Cytokeratin
39. Carcinoma of the urinary bladder is associated with all of the following except
a. Cigarette smoking
b. Alcohol intake*
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Schistosomiasis
40. Which mediator of inflammation does NOT cause fever
a. IL-1
b. TNF-a
c. Nitric Oxide*
d. Prostaglandin
41. The characteristic abnormality in B-Thalassemia minor is
a. Raised HbA2 level*
b. Marked rise of HbF
c. Very high red cell distribution width (RDW)
d. Severe anemia
42. The tumor which has a predilection for ephiphyses is
a. Chondroblastoma*
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Osteochodnroma
d. Ewing’s sarcoma
43. Regarding panacinar emphysema, which of the following is true?
a. Involves the entire lung
b. Is most severe in apical region
c. Is associated with a1-antitrypine deficiency*
d. Is almost invariably related to scarring
44. Which of the following is NOT true of fibroadenoma?
a. Painless
b. Well circumscribed
c. It is almost always unilateral*
d. Hormone responsive
45. all of the following results in microcytic hypochromic anemia except
a. fanconi’s anemia*
b. iron deficiency
c. thalassemia
d. lead poisoning
46. all of the following are features of hemolytic anemia except
a. unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
b. reticulocytosis
c. increased plasma hapten*
d. hemoglobinuria
Everything Is Available Free Of Cost On Internet Now Days. . . . .Why To Buy. . .
PHARMACOLOGY
1. All of the above are used for the management of thyrotoxic crisis except
a. Propylthiourcil
b. Propanolol
c. Oral potassium iodine
d. Levothyroxine *
2. Which of the following drugs is avoided in a patient with serum creatinine of more than 3mg/dl?
a. Gentamicin*
b. Azithromycine
c. Ampicilin
d. Amlodipine
3. Which of the following is NOT an inotropic drug?
a. Amrinone*
b. Isoprenaline
c. Amiodarone
d. Dopamine
4. Baclofen is used in the treatment of
a. Schizophrenia
b. Depression
c. Anxiety
d. Spasticity*
5. Which of the following is used for prophylaxis of rheumatic heart disease?
a. Ampicillin
b. Penicillin-G
c. Bezathine Penicillin*
d. Phenoxy-methyl penicillin
6. Dopamine is preferred over vasopressor agents in shock with oligouria because of its effects related to
a. Better cardiac stimulation
b. Less peripheral vasoconstriction*
c. Lower risk of cardiac arrhythmias
d. More CNS stimulation
7. The treatment of choice of bacterial vaginosis is
a. Clindamycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Ampicillin
d. Metronidazole*
8. The antidote for paracetamol poisoning is
a. Activated charcoal
b. N-acetyl cysteine*
c. Adrenaline
d. Magnesium hydroxide gel
9. all of the following therapeutic uses of corticosteroids are appropriate except
a. beclomethasone in bronchial asthma
b. cortisone for Cushing’s syndrome*
c. prednisolone for rheumatoid arthritis
d. dexamethasone for reducing intracranial pressure
10. Major organ involved in Bleomycin toxicity is
a. Liver
b. Bone marrow
c. Skin
d. Lungs*
11. sulfasalazine is used in
a. ulcerative colitis*
b. osteoarthritis
c. gouty arthritis
d. irritable bowel syndrome
12. Methotrexate toxicity can be treated by
a. Folic acid*
b. Folinic acid
c. Riboflavin
d. Cyanocabalamine
13. In a patient of chronic open glaucoma, which one of the following drugs is NOT useful
a. Pilocarpine
b. Physostigmine
c. Homatropine*
d. Timolol
14. Which one of the following is an adverse effect associated with combined oral contraceptives
a. Cerebral stroke*
b. Aggravation of asthma
c. Peripheral neuropathy
d. Nephritic syndrome
15. All of the following are the feature of atropine poisoning except
a. Mydriasis
b. Hallucinations
c. Hypothermia*
d. Coma
16. All of the following drugs should be avoided in pregnancy except
a. Propylthiouracil*
b. Valproic acid
c. Warfarin
d. Tetracyclines
17. All of the following statements about heparine are true EXCEPT
a. It act by inhibiting factor IIa via its action on anti thrombin III
b. Protamine sulphate is antidote
c. aPTT is used to monitor its effect
d. It has only in vivo anticoagulant action*
18. Allopurinol is a competitive inhibitor of
a. Uricase
b. Xanthine oxidase*
c. Guanase
d. Adenosine deaminase
19. Drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures is
a. Phenytoin
b. Valproate*
c. Ethosuximide
d. Carbamazepine
20. Scabies can be effectively treated systematically by
a. Psoralens
b. Ivermectin*
c. Permethrin
d. Septran
21. The antifungal which has a fungicidal mode of action against dermatophyte infections in therapeutic doses is
a. Fluconazole
b. Terbinafine*
c. Itraconazole
d. Ketoxonazole
22. pulmonary fibrosis is a side effect associated with the use of
a. actinomycin
b. busulfan*
c. doxorubicin
d. mithramycin
23. On a routine check up, a patient on warfarin therapy is found to have an international normalized ratio (INR) of 8. the most appropriate action is to stop the drug said
a. Give vitamin K injection
b. Give fresh frozen plasma infusion*
c. Start low molecular weight heparin
d. Restart warfarin after decrease of INR
24. The drug that is contraindicated in angle closure glaucoma is
a. Pilocarpine
b. Atropine*
c. Dorzolamide
d. Timolol
25. All of the following drugs can cause gynaecomastia except
a. Digoxin
b. Amiloride*
c. Cimetriden
d. Spironolactone
26. all of the following are useful in the management of acute asthma except
a. hydrocortisone intravenously
b. salbutamol inhalation
c. salmeterol inhalation*
d. terbutaline inhalation
27. Which of the following drugs have long post antibiotic effect?
a. Quinolones*
b. Macrolides
c. Tetracyclines
d. Oxazolidinones
28. All of the following are vitamin K dependent coagulation factors except
a. Factor VII
b. Factor VIII*
c. Factor X
d. Protein C
PATHOLOGY
29. The coagulation studies of a patient showed normal prothrombin time and prologation of activated partial thromboplastin tine and bleeding time. The most probable diagnosis is
a. Hemophilia
b. DIC
c. von Willebrand disease*
d. ITP
30. EAV rosetters formation is a characteristic of
a. T cells*
b. B cells
c. Monocytes
d. None of the above
31. Which of the following is NOT a prion associated disease
a. Scrapine
b. Kuru
c. Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease
d. Sub acute sclerozing panencephalitis (SSPE)*
32. Bilateral breast carcinoma occurs commonly in
a. Schirrous carcinoma
b. Medullary carcinoma
c. Colloid carcinoma
d. Lobular carcinoma*
33. The most important prognostic factor for invasive carcinoma of breast is
a. Histological subtype
b. Tumor grade
c. Estrogen and progesterone receptor status
d. Axillary lymph node status*
34. Which is the commonest type of cancer seen in patients wit AIDS?
a. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
b. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
c. Hairy cell leukemia
d. Kaposi sarcoma*
35. all of the following are features of secondary immune response except
a. abundant IgG
b. May be induced any time after primary response
c. Repeatable in physiological limits
d. Latent period of five days before it appears*
36. father to son inheritances is never seen in cases of
a. autosomal dominant inheritance
b. autosomal recessive inheritance
c. multifactorial inheritance
d. X-linked dominant inheritance *
37. The tumor Which is least likely to metastasize to the brain is
a. Prostatic carcinoma*
b. Breast carcinoma
c. Renal cell carcinoma
d. Choriocarcinoma
38. tumor marker for endodermal sinus tumor is
a. CEA
b. hCG
c. Alpha fetoprotein*
d. Cytokeratin
39. Carcinoma of the urinary bladder is associated with all of the following except
a. Cigarette smoking
b. Alcohol intake*
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Schistosomiasis
40. Which mediator of inflammation does NOT cause fever
a. IL-1
b. TNF-a
c. Nitric Oxide*
d. Prostaglandin
41. The characteristic abnormality in B-Thalassemia minor is
a. Raised HbA2 level*
b. Marked rise of HbF
c. Very high red cell distribution width (RDW)
d. Severe anemia
42. The tumor which has a predilection for ephiphyses is
a. Chondroblastoma*
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Osteochodnroma
d. Ewing’s sarcoma
43. Regarding panacinar emphysema, which of the following is true?
a. Involves the entire lung
b. Is most severe in apical region
c. Is associated with a1-antitrypine deficiency*
d. Is almost invariably related to scarring
44. Which of the following is NOT true of fibroadenoma?
a. Painless
b. Well circumscribed
c. It is almost always unilateral*
d. Hormone responsive
45. all of the following results in microcytic hypochromic anemia except
a. fanconi’s anemia*
b. iron deficiency
c. thalassemia
d. lead poisoning
46. all of the following are features of hemolytic anemia except
a. unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
b. reticulocytosis
c. increased plasma hapten*
d. hemoglobinuria
Everything Is Available Free Of Cost On Internet Now Days. . . . .Why To Buy. . .
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