1. Oculomotor nerve palsy affects all of the following muscles EXCEPT
a. Medial rectus
b. Superior oblique
c. Inferior oblique
d. Levator palpabrae superioris
2. A 25 year old male has restriction of eye movements in all the directions intermittent ptosis, proximal muscle weakness & fatigability. The most useful test would be
a. Edrophonium test
b. CPK
c. EMG
d. Muscle biopsy
3. All of the following can cause dissociated sensory loss except
a. Anterior spinal artery thromobosis
b. Syringomyelia
c. Ependymoma of spinal cord
d. Tabes dorsalis
4. Which of the following is a useful screening test of diagnosis of Cushing’s disease?
a. Low dose dexamethasone superior test
b. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
c. High dose dexamethasone suppression test
d. Measurement of fasting serum cortisol at 8AM
5. “Stocking or glove” distribution of sensory loss is a feature of
a. Radiculopathy
b. Peripheral neuropathy
c. Myelopathy
d. Cortical sensory loss
6. Criteria for classification of rheumatoid arthritis include all of the following except
a. Morning stiffness more than one hour
b. Symmetric arthritis
c. Symptoms for at least six months
d. Rheumatoid nodules
7. Substances which have the same atomic number but different mass number are called
a. Isobases
b. Isodoses
c. Isotopes
d. Isomers
8. The typical skin lesions seen in erythema multiforme are
a. Wheals
b. Target lesions
c. Bullae
d. Erosions
9. Hidradenitis suppurative is chronic infection is
a. Apocrine sweat gland
b. Sebaceous gland
c. Lymph node
d. Dermis
10. Drug of choice for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis in surgical patients is
a. Intravenous unfractionated heparin
b. Subcutaneous unfractionated heparin
c. Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin
d. Warfarin
11. Initial treatment for pulmonary embolism is
a. Fibrinolysis
b. Anticoagulation
c. Surgical embolectomy
d. Venacaval filter
12. A 43 year old female is diagnosed to have hydatid cyst. The most common site where this is found is:
a. Pancreas
b. Lung
c. Liver
d. Spleen
13. Cervical cancer vaccines are recommended for which age group
a. More than 18 years
b. 18-55 years
c. 9-26 years
d. All post menopausal females
14. High resolution CT is the ideal modality for evaluation of
a. Pleural effusion
b. Lung mass
c. Interstitial lung disease
d. Lymphadenopathy
15. Which of the following antitubercular agent DOES NOT cause hepato-toxicity?
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide
16. Which of the following disorders should be suspected in a new born with edema of hand and feet?
a. Turner syndrome
b. Marfan’s syndrome
c. Homocysteinuria
17. Renal vein thrombisis can occur in all of the following except
a. Trauma
b. Renal cell carcinoma
c. Sickle cell anaemia
d. Nephritic syndrome
18. The condition virtually pathognomonic of HIV disease is
a. Oral candidiasis
b. Molluscum contagiosum
c. Oral hairy leukoplakia
d. Tinea versicolor
19. What cut-off score of Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is used to detect dementia ?
a. Less than 20
b. Less than 24
c. Less than 27
d. Less than 29
20. Marrow plasmacytosis is diagnosis of multiple myeloma. What is the threshold level?
a. >5%
b. >10%
c. >30%
d. >50%
21. A patient diagnosed to have deep vein thrombosis is being treated with heparin. Which of the following test will you order to adjust its dosage
a. Platelet count
b. Prothrombin time
c. Bleeding time
d. Activated thromboplastin time
22. A construction worker has sustained a massive crush injury of right lower limb. He soon develops acute renal failure. Which complication has he developed
a. Necrotizing fasciitis
b. Acute osetomyelitis
c. Compartment syndrome
d. Crush syndrome
23. Extradural haematoma occurs because of
a. Rupture of dural sinus
b. Rupture of middle meningeal artery
c. Rupture of internal carotid artery
d. Rupture of middle cerebral artery
24. Recommended rate of chest compression during cardiopulmonary resuscitation in adults is
a. About 72 compression per minute
b. At least 72 compression per minute
c. About 100 compression per minute
d. At least 100 compression per minute
25. Which one of the following ophthalmological findings at characteristic of proliferative diagbetic retinopathy
a. Microaneurysms
b. Dot and blot haemorrhges
c. Macular scar
d. Neovasculariztion
26. Which of the following dose NOT cause hypoglycemia
a. Insulin
b. Glimepiride
c. Metformin
d. Gliclazide
27. All of the following are sings of aortic regurgitation except
a. Quincke’s sign
b. Duroziez’s sign
c. Carvello’s sign
d. De Musset’s sign
28. A 60 year old diabetic is being managed in a hospital for cellulitis. He suddenly develops hypotension. What is the most likely type of shock
a. Hemorrhagic
b. Neurogenic
c. Cardiogenic
d. Septic
29. Which of the following feature is NOT seen in Guilain Barre Syndrome?
a. Symmetric muscle weakness
b. Profound sensory loss
c. Cranial nerve involvement
d. Involvement of autonomic nervous system
30. Wegener’s granuloma is treated mainly by
a. Radiotherapy
b. Surgery
c. Cytotoxic drug and steroids
d. Laser excision
31. “Diffuse axonal Injury” is best detected on
a. Non contract CT
b. Contrast CT
c. MRI
d. Transcranial Doppler
32. Measles rash is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
a. Appears 4-5 days after onset of fever
b. It is macula-papular in character
c. It first appears on face and back on neck
d. It is associated with cervical and occipital lymphadenopathy
33. All of the following statements regarding Chikungunya arthritis is true,EXCEPT
a. Affects small joints most often
b. Causes early morning pain and swelling
c. Can persist for months
d. Early institution of steroids is essential
34. Following are the causes of the trachea ‘pushed’ to opposite side, EXCEPT in
a. Fibrocavitatory disease
b. Pleural effusion
c. Pneumothorax
d. Tumour
35. Which one of the following is NOT a function of temporal lobes
a. Audition
b. Emotion
c. Motivation
d. Memory
36. The microorgranism most intimately associated with seborrheic dermatitis is
a. Microsporum
b. Stretpcoccus
c. Corynebacterium
d. Pityrosporum
37. The single most effective way to prevent cross infection in hospitals is
a. Hand washing
b. Antibiotic prophylaxis
c. Vaccination
d. Isolation
38. Chagas disease is caused by infection with
a. Trypanosoma gambience
b. Trypanosoma rhodesiense
c. Trypanosoma cruzi
d. Trypanosoma brucei
39. The correct dose of vitamin A for xerophthamia in adult is
a. Two dose of 60 mg two weeks apart
b. Single dose of 60 mg
c. Two doses of 30 mg two week apart
d. Single dose of 30 mg
1 µg retinol = 3.33 IU. Dietary deficiency is traditionally treated with vitamin A palmitate in oil 60,000 IU po once/day for 2 days, followed by 4500 IU po once/day. If vomiting or malabsorption is present or xerophthalmia is probable, a dose of 50,000 IU for infants < 6 mo, 100,000 IU for infants 6 to 12 mo, or 200,000 IU for children > 12 mo and adults should be given for 2 days, with a third dose at least 2 wk later
40. The half life of serum albumin is about
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days
41. Which of the following is NOT true regarding prolactinoma?
a. It may manifest as galactorrhea amenorrhea, hypogondism
b. They arise from acidophil cells of pituitary gland
c. Symptoms of raised intracranial tension may occur
d. Transphenoidal surgery is the treatment of choice
42. Which of the following is typically seen in hypothyroidism?
a. Weight loss
b. Tachycardia
c. Brisk tendon reflexes
d. Cold intolerance
43. Acute lymphangitis is caused by
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Pseudomonas
c. Escherichia coli
d. Staphylococcus aureus
44. Sunflower cataract is seen in
a. Chalcosis
b. Siderosis
c. Diabetes
d. Trauma
45. Largest source of radiation exposure to general population is
a. Computers
b. Diagnostic radiology
c. Nuclear weapons
d. Freon industry
46. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome and Torsades de pointes are the most feared adverse effects of one of the following drugs for sedation on the ICU
a. Dexmetomidine
b. Haloperidol
c. Propofol
d. Midazolam
47. 2 year old child with high fever and irritability develops seizures within 24 hours of onset. By 4th day, fever subsides and rashes appear. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Erythema infectiosum
b. Exanthema subitum
c. Measles
d. Typhus fever
48. Tractional retinal detachment is seen in
a. High myopia
b. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
c. Central retinal artery occlusion
d. Malignant hypertension
49. Cocaine overdose presents with all of the following except
a. Diaphoresis
b. Hypertension
c. Constricted pupils
d. Agitation
50. Sympathetic Ophthalmitis occurs following injury to
a. Lens iris and ciliary body
b. Optic nerve
c. Cornea
51. Isolated 3rd nerve palsy is seen in
a. Frontal lobe behavior
b. Weber’s syndrome
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Lateral medullary syndrome
52. Air travelers have an increased risk of
a. Venous thrombosis
b. Polycythemia
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Cerebral edema
53. All of the following are true regarding management of postural hypotension EXCEPT
a. Head up tilt of the bed
b. Correction of dehydration
c. Fludrocortisones
d. Avoid using Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
54. CA 19-9 is usually associated with
a. Cancer ovary
b. Carcinoma beast
c. Carcinoma pancreas
d. Carcinoma lung
55. Acute onset dyspnoea is seen in all of the following conditions except
a. Pulmonary hamartoma
b. Pneumothorax
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Pulmonary edema
56. A 28 yrs old woman gave birth to a small of age newborn at 38 weeks of pregnancy. On examination, the new born found to have rhinitis, distended abdomen; wrinkled skin, and palmoplanter blister. The woman had an earlier history of abortion and stillbirth. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Neonatal pemphigus
b. Scabies
c. Congenital syphilis
d. Congenital HIV infection
57. Acute subdural haematoma is because of
a. Venous bleeding
b. Arterial bleeding
c. Capillary bleeding
d. Lymphatic oozing
58. Investigation of choice for pericardial effusion is
a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. Echocardiography
d. X-ray chest
59. Investigation of choice in acute subarachnoid haemorrhage is
a. Ultrasound
b. Non-contrast CT
c. Contrast-enhanced CT
d. Contrast –enhanced MRI
60. Beyond what age, absence of social smile is regarded as abnormal
a. 12 weeks
b. 14 weeks
c. 16 weeks
d. 18 weeks
61. Persistent cough may be caused by all of the following except
a. Post nasal drip
b. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
c. Angiotensin –II receptor antagonists
d. Gastro-esophageal reflux
62. Which one of the following is a feature of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
a. Gait disturbance
b. Aphasia
c. Global confusion
d. Ophthalmoplegia
63. The FAST questionnaire is used for identification of
a. Smoking problems
b. Alcohol problems
c. Sleep problems
d. Memory problems
64. The IV fluid used in Prakland formula for burns is
a. Normal saline
b. Dextrose saline
c. Ringer lactate
d. Haemacel
65. All of the following may be associated with esophageal carcinoma except
a. Barrett’s esophagus
b. Achlasia
c. Hiatus hernia
d. Chronic reflux esophagitis
66. The commonest cause of unilateral foul smelling nasal discharge in children in
a. Antrochoanal polyp
b. Foreign body
c. Acute sinusitis
d. Nasal diphtheria
67. PET imaging of tumour utilizes
a. 18FDG
b. 11C methonine
c. Indium III-DTPA
d. 99 m Tc-DTPA
68. Amenorrhoea is seen in all of the following conditions except
a. Pregnancy
b. Hyperprolactinemia
c. Insulinoma
d. Polycystic ovarian disease
69. First diagnosis to be considered in a patient with deep vein thrombosis with symptoms of chest pain, haemoptysis & breathlessness is
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Pleurisy
d. Pneumonia
70. All of the following are feature of tension pneumothorax except
a. Neck vein distention
b. Tachycardia
c. Chest pain
d. Hypertension
71. Investigation of choice for detecting minimal pleural effusion is
a. Ultrasound
b. CT scan
c. MRI
d. Chest X-ray
72. Polimyelitis involves
a. Anterior horn cells
b. Peripheral nerve
c. Motor cortex
d. Spinothalamic tracts
73. Dupuytren’s contracture of hand commonly start in
a. Thumbs
b. Index finger
c. Middle finger
d. Ring finger
74. In which of the following, orbital metastasis is common
a. Hypernephroma
b. Neuroblastoma
c. Melanoma
d. Hepatoma
75. Horner’s syndrome is characterized by all of the following except
a. Ipsilateral miosis
b. Ipsilateral anhydrosis
c. Ipsilateral proptosis
d. Ipsilateral enophthalmos
76. Scabies can be effectively treated systemically by
a. Psoralens
b. Ivermectin
c. Permethrin
d. Cotrimoxazole
77. A male had crush injury of the thigh. He did not seek any medical attention. 3 days later, he presented with sepsis. Examination of the thigh revealed wound under tension with crepitus. What is the most likely organism responsible for this condition
a. Streptococcus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Clostridium welchi
78. The best screening test for diagnosis of Wilson’s disease is
a. Estimation of serum ceruloplasmin
b. Estimation of serum copper
c. Estimation urinary copper
d. Eye test for KF ring
79. Most sensitive test for DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) is
a. D-Dimer assay
b. Prothrombin time
c. aPTT
d. TT (Thrombin Test)
80. Best way of pre-operative hair removal to achieve lowest rates of infection is
a. Shaving the night before surgery
b. Shaving just before surgery
c. Cream depilation
d. Hair clipping
81. The perinatal mortality rate is expressed as per 1000
a. Live births
b. Pregnancies
c. Total births
d. Infants
82. Test recommended to assess the relative patency and contribution of radial and ulnar arteries before connulation is
a. Snider’s test
b. Valsava test
c. Palpation of radial and ulnar pulse
d. Modified Allen test
83. The amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood dependent upon:
a. The hemoglobin level
b. The respiratory rate
c. The partial pressure of oxygen
d. Nitrites & suphonamides in blood
84. Myoglobinuria is most commonly seen in
a. Chemical burns
b. Electrical burns
c. Flame burns
d. Radiations burns
a. Medial rectus
b. Superior oblique
c. Inferior oblique
d. Levator palpabrae superioris
2. A 25 year old male has restriction of eye movements in all the directions intermittent ptosis, proximal muscle weakness & fatigability. The most useful test would be
a. Edrophonium test
b. CPK
c. EMG
d. Muscle biopsy
3. All of the following can cause dissociated sensory loss except
a. Anterior spinal artery thromobosis
b. Syringomyelia
c. Ependymoma of spinal cord
d. Tabes dorsalis
4. Which of the following is a useful screening test of diagnosis of Cushing’s disease?
a. Low dose dexamethasone superior test
b. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
c. High dose dexamethasone suppression test
d. Measurement of fasting serum cortisol at 8AM
5. “Stocking or glove” distribution of sensory loss is a feature of
a. Radiculopathy
b. Peripheral neuropathy
c. Myelopathy
d. Cortical sensory loss
6. Criteria for classification of rheumatoid arthritis include all of the following except
a. Morning stiffness more than one hour
b. Symmetric arthritis
c. Symptoms for at least six months
d. Rheumatoid nodules
7. Substances which have the same atomic number but different mass number are called
a. Isobases
b. Isodoses
c. Isotopes
d. Isomers
8. The typical skin lesions seen in erythema multiforme are
a. Wheals
b. Target lesions
c. Bullae
d. Erosions
9. Hidradenitis suppurative is chronic infection is
a. Apocrine sweat gland
b. Sebaceous gland
c. Lymph node
d. Dermis
10. Drug of choice for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis in surgical patients is
a. Intravenous unfractionated heparin
b. Subcutaneous unfractionated heparin
c. Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin
d. Warfarin
11. Initial treatment for pulmonary embolism is
a. Fibrinolysis
b. Anticoagulation
c. Surgical embolectomy
d. Venacaval filter
12. A 43 year old female is diagnosed to have hydatid cyst. The most common site where this is found is:
a. Pancreas
b. Lung
c. Liver
d. Spleen
13. Cervical cancer vaccines are recommended for which age group
a. More than 18 years
b. 18-55 years
c. 9-26 years
d. All post menopausal females
14. High resolution CT is the ideal modality for evaluation of
a. Pleural effusion
b. Lung mass
c. Interstitial lung disease
d. Lymphadenopathy
15. Which of the following antitubercular agent DOES NOT cause hepato-toxicity?
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide
16. Which of the following disorders should be suspected in a new born with edema of hand and feet?
a. Turner syndrome
b. Marfan’s syndrome
c. Homocysteinuria
17. Renal vein thrombisis can occur in all of the following except
a. Trauma
b. Renal cell carcinoma
c. Sickle cell anaemia
d. Nephritic syndrome
18. The condition virtually pathognomonic of HIV disease is
a. Oral candidiasis
b. Molluscum contagiosum
c. Oral hairy leukoplakia
d. Tinea versicolor
19. What cut-off score of Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is used to detect dementia ?
a. Less than 20
b. Less than 24
c. Less than 27
d. Less than 29
20. Marrow plasmacytosis is diagnosis of multiple myeloma. What is the threshold level?
a. >5%
b. >10%
c. >30%
d. >50%
21. A patient diagnosed to have deep vein thrombosis is being treated with heparin. Which of the following test will you order to adjust its dosage
a. Platelet count
b. Prothrombin time
c. Bleeding time
d. Activated thromboplastin time
22. A construction worker has sustained a massive crush injury of right lower limb. He soon develops acute renal failure. Which complication has he developed
a. Necrotizing fasciitis
b. Acute osetomyelitis
c. Compartment syndrome
d. Crush syndrome
23. Extradural haematoma occurs because of
a. Rupture of dural sinus
b. Rupture of middle meningeal artery
c. Rupture of internal carotid artery
d. Rupture of middle cerebral artery
24. Recommended rate of chest compression during cardiopulmonary resuscitation in adults is
a. About 72 compression per minute
b. At least 72 compression per minute
c. About 100 compression per minute
d. At least 100 compression per minute
25. Which one of the following ophthalmological findings at characteristic of proliferative diagbetic retinopathy
a. Microaneurysms
b. Dot and blot haemorrhges
c. Macular scar
d. Neovasculariztion
26. Which of the following dose NOT cause hypoglycemia
a. Insulin
b. Glimepiride
c. Metformin
d. Gliclazide
27. All of the following are sings of aortic regurgitation except
a. Quincke’s sign
b. Duroziez’s sign
c. Carvello’s sign
d. De Musset’s sign
28. A 60 year old diabetic is being managed in a hospital for cellulitis. He suddenly develops hypotension. What is the most likely type of shock
a. Hemorrhagic
b. Neurogenic
c. Cardiogenic
d. Septic
29. Which of the following feature is NOT seen in Guilain Barre Syndrome?
a. Symmetric muscle weakness
b. Profound sensory loss
c. Cranial nerve involvement
d. Involvement of autonomic nervous system
30. Wegener’s granuloma is treated mainly by
a. Radiotherapy
b. Surgery
c. Cytotoxic drug and steroids
d. Laser excision
31. “Diffuse axonal Injury” is best detected on
a. Non contract CT
b. Contrast CT
c. MRI
d. Transcranial Doppler
32. Measles rash is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
a. Appears 4-5 days after onset of fever
b. It is macula-papular in character
c. It first appears on face and back on neck
d. It is associated with cervical and occipital lymphadenopathy
33. All of the following statements regarding Chikungunya arthritis is true,EXCEPT
a. Affects small joints most often
b. Causes early morning pain and swelling
c. Can persist for months
d. Early institution of steroids is essential
34. Following are the causes of the trachea ‘pushed’ to opposite side, EXCEPT in
a. Fibrocavitatory disease
b. Pleural effusion
c. Pneumothorax
d. Tumour
35. Which one of the following is NOT a function of temporal lobes
a. Audition
b. Emotion
c. Motivation
d. Memory
36. The microorgranism most intimately associated with seborrheic dermatitis is
a. Microsporum
b. Stretpcoccus
c. Corynebacterium
d. Pityrosporum
37. The single most effective way to prevent cross infection in hospitals is
a. Hand washing
b. Antibiotic prophylaxis
c. Vaccination
d. Isolation
38. Chagas disease is caused by infection with
a. Trypanosoma gambience
b. Trypanosoma rhodesiense
c. Trypanosoma cruzi
d. Trypanosoma brucei
39. The correct dose of vitamin A for xerophthamia in adult is
a. Two dose of 60 mg two weeks apart
b. Single dose of 60 mg
c. Two doses of 30 mg two week apart
d. Single dose of 30 mg
1 µg retinol = 3.33 IU. Dietary deficiency is traditionally treated with vitamin A palmitate in oil 60,000 IU po once/day for 2 days, followed by 4500 IU po once/day. If vomiting or malabsorption is present or xerophthalmia is probable, a dose of 50,000 IU for infants < 6 mo, 100,000 IU for infants 6 to 12 mo, or 200,000 IU for children > 12 mo and adults should be given for 2 days, with a third dose at least 2 wk later
40. The half life of serum albumin is about
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days
41. Which of the following is NOT true regarding prolactinoma?
a. It may manifest as galactorrhea amenorrhea, hypogondism
b. They arise from acidophil cells of pituitary gland
c. Symptoms of raised intracranial tension may occur
d. Transphenoidal surgery is the treatment of choice
42. Which of the following is typically seen in hypothyroidism?
a. Weight loss
b. Tachycardia
c. Brisk tendon reflexes
d. Cold intolerance
43. Acute lymphangitis is caused by
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Pseudomonas
c. Escherichia coli
d. Staphylococcus aureus
44. Sunflower cataract is seen in
a. Chalcosis
b. Siderosis
c. Diabetes
d. Trauma
45. Largest source of radiation exposure to general population is
a. Computers
b. Diagnostic radiology
c. Nuclear weapons
d. Freon industry
46. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome and Torsades de pointes are the most feared adverse effects of one of the following drugs for sedation on the ICU
a. Dexmetomidine
b. Haloperidol
c. Propofol
d. Midazolam
47. 2 year old child with high fever and irritability develops seizures within 24 hours of onset. By 4th day, fever subsides and rashes appear. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Erythema infectiosum
b. Exanthema subitum
c. Measles
d. Typhus fever
48. Tractional retinal detachment is seen in
a. High myopia
b. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
c. Central retinal artery occlusion
d. Malignant hypertension
49. Cocaine overdose presents with all of the following except
a. Diaphoresis
b. Hypertension
c. Constricted pupils
d. Agitation
50. Sympathetic Ophthalmitis occurs following injury to
a. Lens iris and ciliary body
b. Optic nerve
c. Cornea
51. Isolated 3rd nerve palsy is seen in
a. Frontal lobe behavior
b. Weber’s syndrome
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Lateral medullary syndrome
52. Air travelers have an increased risk of
a. Venous thrombosis
b. Polycythemia
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Cerebral edema
53. All of the following are true regarding management of postural hypotension EXCEPT
a. Head up tilt of the bed
b. Correction of dehydration
c. Fludrocortisones
d. Avoid using Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
54. CA 19-9 is usually associated with
a. Cancer ovary
b. Carcinoma beast
c. Carcinoma pancreas
d. Carcinoma lung
55. Acute onset dyspnoea is seen in all of the following conditions except
a. Pulmonary hamartoma
b. Pneumothorax
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Pulmonary edema
56. A 28 yrs old woman gave birth to a small of age newborn at 38 weeks of pregnancy. On examination, the new born found to have rhinitis, distended abdomen; wrinkled skin, and palmoplanter blister. The woman had an earlier history of abortion and stillbirth. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Neonatal pemphigus
b. Scabies
c. Congenital syphilis
d. Congenital HIV infection
57. Acute subdural haematoma is because of
a. Venous bleeding
b. Arterial bleeding
c. Capillary bleeding
d. Lymphatic oozing
58. Investigation of choice for pericardial effusion is
a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. Echocardiography
d. X-ray chest
59. Investigation of choice in acute subarachnoid haemorrhage is
a. Ultrasound
b. Non-contrast CT
c. Contrast-enhanced CT
d. Contrast –enhanced MRI
60. Beyond what age, absence of social smile is regarded as abnormal
a. 12 weeks
b. 14 weeks
c. 16 weeks
d. 18 weeks
61. Persistent cough may be caused by all of the following except
a. Post nasal drip
b. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
c. Angiotensin –II receptor antagonists
d. Gastro-esophageal reflux
62. Which one of the following is a feature of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
a. Gait disturbance
b. Aphasia
c. Global confusion
d. Ophthalmoplegia
63. The FAST questionnaire is used for identification of
a. Smoking problems
b. Alcohol problems
c. Sleep problems
d. Memory problems
64. The IV fluid used in Prakland formula for burns is
a. Normal saline
b. Dextrose saline
c. Ringer lactate
d. Haemacel
65. All of the following may be associated with esophageal carcinoma except
a. Barrett’s esophagus
b. Achlasia
c. Hiatus hernia
d. Chronic reflux esophagitis
66. The commonest cause of unilateral foul smelling nasal discharge in children in
a. Antrochoanal polyp
b. Foreign body
c. Acute sinusitis
d. Nasal diphtheria
67. PET imaging of tumour utilizes
a. 18FDG
b. 11C methonine
c. Indium III-DTPA
d. 99 m Tc-DTPA
68. Amenorrhoea is seen in all of the following conditions except
a. Pregnancy
b. Hyperprolactinemia
c. Insulinoma
d. Polycystic ovarian disease
69. First diagnosis to be considered in a patient with deep vein thrombosis with symptoms of chest pain, haemoptysis & breathlessness is
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Pleurisy
d. Pneumonia
70. All of the following are feature of tension pneumothorax except
a. Neck vein distention
b. Tachycardia
c. Chest pain
d. Hypertension
71. Investigation of choice for detecting minimal pleural effusion is
a. Ultrasound
b. CT scan
c. MRI
d. Chest X-ray
72. Polimyelitis involves
a. Anterior horn cells
b. Peripheral nerve
c. Motor cortex
d. Spinothalamic tracts
73. Dupuytren’s contracture of hand commonly start in
a. Thumbs
b. Index finger
c. Middle finger
d. Ring finger
74. In which of the following, orbital metastasis is common
a. Hypernephroma
b. Neuroblastoma
c. Melanoma
d. Hepatoma
75. Horner’s syndrome is characterized by all of the following except
a. Ipsilateral miosis
b. Ipsilateral anhydrosis
c. Ipsilateral proptosis
d. Ipsilateral enophthalmos
76. Scabies can be effectively treated systemically by
a. Psoralens
b. Ivermectin
c. Permethrin
d. Cotrimoxazole
77. A male had crush injury of the thigh. He did not seek any medical attention. 3 days later, he presented with sepsis. Examination of the thigh revealed wound under tension with crepitus. What is the most likely organism responsible for this condition
a. Streptococcus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Clostridium welchi
78. The best screening test for diagnosis of Wilson’s disease is
a. Estimation of serum ceruloplasmin
b. Estimation of serum copper
c. Estimation urinary copper
d. Eye test for KF ring
79. Most sensitive test for DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) is
a. D-Dimer assay
b. Prothrombin time
c. aPTT
d. TT (Thrombin Test)
80. Best way of pre-operative hair removal to achieve lowest rates of infection is
a. Shaving the night before surgery
b. Shaving just before surgery
c. Cream depilation
d. Hair clipping
81. The perinatal mortality rate is expressed as per 1000
a. Live births
b. Pregnancies
c. Total births
d. Infants
82. Test recommended to assess the relative patency and contribution of radial and ulnar arteries before connulation is
a. Snider’s test
b. Valsava test
c. Palpation of radial and ulnar pulse
d. Modified Allen test
83. The amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood dependent upon:
a. The hemoglobin level
b. The respiratory rate
c. The partial pressure of oxygen
d. Nitrites & suphonamides in blood
84. Myoglobinuria is most commonly seen in
a. Chemical burns
b. Electrical burns
c. Flame burns
d. Radiations burns
