visitors

Friday, December 14, 2012

AIIMS medicine recall NOVEMBER 2012

142. Patient with ICD collapses, ICD imaging modality
a. Chest x ray
b. MRI
c. CT
d. USG
Answer (a) Chest X ray
Reference: Harrison: 18 th edition/ just above table 233-9/ chapter 233./Emedicine:http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/162245-overview#aw2aab6c12

143. A patient on amphotericin B develops hypokalemia of 2.3meq/l. K+ supplementation requires is?
a. 40meq over 24 hrs
b. 60meq over 24 he's
c. 80 meq over 24 hrs
d. 120-160meq over 24 hrs
Answer (A) 40meq over 24 hrs
Reference: Harrison 18th edition, chapter 46
143. A patient with 12cm abscess in liver which was drained under sonographic monitoring 3 times and On follow up a residual cavity of 4cm was found to be present .An oral lumicidal drug was given for 14 days. Next plan of action shall be:
a. Stool examination serially
b. USG weekly for 1 month followed by monthly USG till 1 year.
c. USG weekly for 1 month followed by CT scan at 3 months.
d. Monthly CT scan
Answer (b) USG weekly for 1 month followed by monthly USG till 1 year.
Reference: Harrison 18 th edition chapter 202
144. Which of the following is Not true aboutpolymyositis ?
a. Limb girdle weakness
b. Ophthalmoplegia
c. Para-neoplastic syndrome
d. Spontaneous discharge in EMG.
Answer (B) Ophthalmoplegia
Reference: Harrison 18th chapter 383
145. 35 year old female with recurrent renal stone. not advised is:
a. Increase water
b. Restrict protein
c. Restrict salt
d. Ophthalmoplegia
Answer (D) Ophthalmoplegia
Reference: Harrison 18th edition/ chapter 281/page 1817/ Reference: www. Uptodate.com/contents/prevention of recurrent calcium stones in adults, Campbell’s urology chapter 43
146. A 28 yr old man has lenticonus and ESRD now. His maternal uncle also died of similar illness. Diagnosis is
a. ARPKD
b. ADPKD
c. Oxalosis
d. Alport's syndrome
Answer: (D) Alport’s syndrome
Reference: Harrison 18th Chapter 357
147. Pinna calcification Except
a. Gout
b. Onchrnosis
c. Frost bite
d. Addisons disease
Answer (a) Gout
Reference :Chapter 54. Skin Manifestations of Internal Disease, Harrison 18th (www.nejm.org/doi/full/10.1056/NEJMicm1000193)
148. Which of the following doesnot need treatment?
a. Neuroblastoma
b. Burkitts
c. t cell lymphoblastic leukemia
d. Not Recalled
Answer is A
Reference: Nelson 18th text book of pediatrics/chapter 498
149. With ageing, a slight decrease in cognitive impairment is seen due to increase in level of
a. Homocysteine
b. Taurine
c. Methionine
d. Cysteine
Answer (a) Homocysteine
Reference: CMDT 2012 / page 1620
150. A Patient presents with pain in Meta-Tarso-Phalangeal joints and is a known case of Chronic Renal Failure. This is due to accumulation of-
a. Rh factor
b. Uric acid
c. Serum urea
d. HLA B27 typing
Answer (b) Uric Acid
Reference: Harrison 18th edition/table 280.4/ chapter280 and http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/21321568
151. SARS causative agent
a. Corona-virus
b. Picorna-virus
c. Myxovirus
d. Recalled
Answer: (a) Corona-virus
Reference  :Harrison 18th edition-chapter 179
152. Blink reflex is used for?
a. Mid pontine lesions
b. Neuromuscular transmission
c. Axonal neuropathy
d. Motor neuron disease
Answer (a) Mid pontine lesions
Reference: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/17727783/ Clinical value of blink reflex
153. Grisel syndrome all are true except:
a. Post-adeniodectomy
b. Conservation treatment
c. Inflammation of cervical spine ligaments
d. No need for neurosurgeon
Answer (d) No need for neurosurgeon
Reference: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2639892/
154. Cervical syringomyelia all are seen except
a. Burning sensation in hands
b. Hypertrophy of abductor pollicisbrevis
c. Plantar extensor
d. Absent biceps reflex.
Answer: (b) Hypertrophy of abductor pollicisbrevis
Reference: Harrison textbook of medicine 18 th edition chapter 377/ above figure 377-7http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1151685-clinical
155. 70year female is on treatment with Alendronate for severe osteoporosis.Now she complains of pain in right thigh. What is the next investigation to be performed?
a. DEXA scan
b. x ray
c. Serum vitamin D levels
d. Serum alkaline phosphate levels
Answer (b) X-ray
Reference: CMDT 2012/page 1118
156. A 70 year old retired Military person with good previous medical record complains of bi-temporal headache which is decreased in lying down position. He states that he gets relief by giving pressure over bilateral temples. The patient also complains of loss of appetite with feeling feverish.
a. Chronic tension headache
b. Temporal arteritis
c. Migraine
d. Fibromyalgia
Answer (b) Temporal arteritis
Reference: CMDT 2011 page 819 and http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/809492-clinical#a0216
157. A patient of rheumatoid arthritis develops sudden onset Quadriparesis, , increased muscle tone of limbs with exaggerated tendon jerks and worseningof  gait. The investigation to be done:
a. Flexion and extension Cervical area X ray of neck
b. MRI brain
c. EMG and NCV
d. Carotid angiography
Answer( a) Flexion and extension Cervical area X ray of neck
Reference:Harrison chapter 15/18 th edition

159. Type 1 renal tubular acidosis all are trueExcept?
a. Renal stones
b. Hypokalemia
c. > 4mg/ day Sodium bicarbonate
d. Urine pH > 5.
Answer (c) > 4mg/ day Sodium bicarbonate
Reference: Harrison 18th edition 284/ CMDT 2011 page 862
160. A diabetes mellitus patient with fungal infection of sinuses and peri-orbital region with significant visual impairment:
a. Amphotericin B
b. Itraconazole
c. Ketoconazole
d. Broad spectrum antibiotics
Answer: Amphotericin B
Reference: Harrison 18th  Edition/ Chapter 205
161. Gait apraxia?
a. ACA
b. MCA
c. PCA
d. Posterior choroidal artery
Answer: (a) Amphotericin B
Reference: chapter 24 Harrison18th : Gait and balance disorders
162. Prions, which of following is correct
a. Long incubation period
b. Destroyed by autoclaving at 121C
c. Nucleic acid present
d. Immunogenic
Answer (a) Long incubation period
Reference: The following lines are excerpt from Harrison 18th chapter 383:
163. A patient with Tubercular meningitis was taking ATT regularly. At end of 1 month of regular intake of drugs deterioration in sensorium is noted in condition of the patient. Which of the following investigations is not required on emergency evaluation?
a. MRI
b. NCCT
c. CSF examination
d. Liver function tests
Answer (c) CSF examination
References: included in the text
Therefore the following logical conclusion can be:
ALTERED SENSORIUM due to Hepatic encephalopathy secondary to hepatotoxicity of ATT.  Hence LFT should be performed.
ALTEREDED SENSORIUM due to Obstructive hydrocephalus could lead to raised ICT leading to pressure on midbrain and resultant status.  Therefore a MRI scan can identify the process and necessitate a neurosurgical consult.
(Page 540 of OP GHAI 7th edition) ALTERED SENSORIUM due to end-arteritis resulting in brain infarction and hypo-dense lesions.  Tubercular encephalopathy results in diffuse edema of brain simulating post-infective allergic encephalopathy,   Necrotizing or hemorrhagic leuko-encephalopathy may occur in TB meningitis.. In choice NCCT is given and it can identify infarction as well cerebral Edema.
The que3stion mentions altered sensorium in the patient and if we see the table in (Fig 376-1 harry boy 17th edition Harrison) on altered sensorium, imaging should be performed.  Lumbar puncture now can precipitate the ominous herniation of the brain.
164. What is feature of temporal arteritis
a. Giant cell arteritis
b. Granulomatous vasculitis
c. Necrotizing vasculitis
d. Leucocytoclasticvasculitis
Answer (a) Giant cell arteritis
Reference: Harrison: 18th edition/ chapter 326
165. A patient withHepatits C, exhibits hypo-complimentemia, 2g/day proteinuria andhematuria is present. The most probable diagnosis is: REPEAT
a. M.P.G.N.
b. Cryo-globulinemia
c. Membranous Glomerulopathy
d. Post-infectious Glomerulonephritis
Answer (a) M.P.G.N.
Reference: Chapter 326/ Harrison 18th edition/http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/329255-clinical/CMDT 2012 pg 899.
166. All are indicated in a patient increased s. cysteine and multiple renal stones except:
a. Cysteamine or
b. Increase fluid intake
c. Alkalinisation of urine
d. Pencillamine
Answer: (a) Cysteamine or
Reference: CMDT 2012/ page 923/chapter 287 harrison 18th edition
 

Thursday, October 11, 2012

pediatrics MCI 2102- result expected before weekend

MCI September 2012 Paediatrics


1. At what  age does child know his gender ?

a. 1 yr

b. 1- 2 yr

c. 21/2- 3 yrs!

d. 4 yrs

A child can tell his age gender by 3 years of age. He can recall a story as well for example if some child ate his lunch then he would come home and can complain to the mother for the same. A child at 3 yrs has 20 teeth was asked in previous examination. A child at three can draw a circle at 3 yrs.

So when you sit in next exam, do invest 15 minutes into what a child can do ? at 2 yrs ,3 yrs and 4 yrs. this is asked as the preschool age group shapes the personality of child and therefore one of the most important periods of growth.

Reference: DIAMS pediatric notes .



2. Not a sign of good attachment of baby to breast :

a. Baby suckles with lower lip inverted!

b. Upper part of areola visible.

c. Baby suckles in slow pauses

d. Chin of baby touches the breast.

Well think logically if the baby is to suckle properly, the lower lip must be EVERTED. This is a repeat question .

3. 1st sign of sexual maturity in boys

a. Phallic enlargement

b. Testicular volume!

c. Change of voice

d. Change in body structure and skin changes

1st sexual change in boys is increase in testicular enlargement while in girls would be thelarche. REPEAT

4. A baby can lift his head and chest of the bed in prone position by the age of

a. 3 months

b. 4 months

c. 6 months!

d. 9 month

a child in prone position /or held in ventral suspension at birth would be like a rag doll with inability to hold neck.

Head control comes at 4 months and child placed in prone position can raise his head of couch but not the chest.

A child at 6 months can raise his head neck and chest off the couch using strength of his shoulder muscles.

Those who attended my class would recall 3 6 8 12 rule

3- neck becomes strong

6- shoulders become strong

8- back muscles become strong

12 – leg muscles become strong.



5. The length of baby becomes 100 cm at

a. 1 yrs

b. 2 yrs

c. 3 yrs

d. 4yrs !



6. Musty odour of urine is seen in

a. Phenylketonuria!

b. Maple syrup urine disease

c. Isovaleric academia

d. Organic aciduria



7. Sub-periosteal bleeding is seen in:

a. Scurvy!

b. Rickets

c. Diamond balckfann syndrome

d. Acute ITP

Thursday, September 20, 2012

LAST minute tips -MCI sept 2012

1. sleep pattern to be reversed to normal. instead of studying all night study at day time .
2. carry choclates with you to avoid hypoglycemia.
3. its humid so wear accordingly
4. attempt all questions .
5. carefully fill the answer sheet or your answer sheet is bound be rejected. causes - ink smuding /sweat smudging / incorrect code filled/ incorrect ROLL NUMBER filled
6. no point in reading derma /radio/ psychaiarty. if you did not study them earlier.... congrats on wasting next few months of your life
7. revise @ 1 subject perr day PSM/ PHARMA/ BIOCHEM/ SURGERY/ GYNAE/OBS/MEDICINE
8. revise all SPM data one day before .

Tuesday, May 1, 2012

MCI march 2012 screening exam

MCI MARCH 2012 medicine questions
1. Shrinking lung disorder is seen is


a. Sjogren’s syndrome

b. Systemic lupus eruthematosus (cant get simpler )

c. Polyarthritis nodosa

d. Behcet’s syndrome

2. The drug of choice in scleroderma induced hypertensive crisis is

a. ACE inhibitors ( malignant hypertension and renal crisis needs a permanent solution! so dont answer as nitroprusside as it will work for few minutes and then back to square one.

b. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

c. Β – blockers

d. Sodium nitroprusside

3. Schistocytes are seen in

a. Iron deficiency anemia

b. Megaloblastic anemia

c. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia !! also known as burr  cells and helmet cells

d. Aplastic anemia

4. Puddle’s sign is used to detect

a. Chylothorax

b. Ascites!!

c. Abdominal aortic aneurysm

d. Renal artery stenosis

5. Oral vancomycin can be used for treatment of

a. Hepatic encephalopathy

b. Pseudomembranous colitis!!

c. Staphylococcal food poisoning

d. None of the above

6. Which of the following could suggest presence of an ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in a patient with hypercortisolism

a. Hypertension

b. Glucose intolerance

c. Metabolic alkalosis!!

d. Truncal obesity

7. After taking alcohol, a hitherto healthy individual has persisting vomiting and vomits blood. The most likely diagnosis is

a. Boerhaave’s syndrome

b. Mallory Weiss syndrome!!

c. Barrett’s oesophagus

d. Carcinoma oesophagus

8. The most radio sensitive tumor amongst the following is

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

b. Seminoma!!

c. Soft tissue sarcoma

d. Lympho epithelioma

9. Most useful investigation of choice for liver abscess is

a. Exploratory laparotomy

b. Ultrasound !!

c. Liver enzymes

d. Parasite in the stool

10. The commonest fluid used for fluid resuscitation in burns is

a. Normal saline

b. Ringer lactate!!

c. Human albumin

d. Fresh frozen plasma

11. All of the following are clinical signs of hypothyroidism except

a. Cardiomegaly

b. Pericardial effusion

c. Tachycardia!!

d. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk

12. Radio isotope scan used in the diagnosis of Meckel’s diverticulum is

a. Tc99!!

b. I131

c. HIDA

d. RBC labeled

13. ‘Bloody Triad’ of massive blood loss and transfusion is characterized by

a. Acidosis, hypotension and oliguria

b. Acidosis, hypotension and coagulopathy

c. Acidosis, hypothermia and coagulopathy!!

d. Acidosis, hyperthermia and coagulopathy

14. Examination of the synovial fluid in tuberculosis usually reveals the following

a. Low count of leucocytes, increased glucose content and decreased proteins

b. Leucocytosis, decrease of both glucose and protein content

c. Leucocytosis, decreased glucose content and a raised protein content!!

d. Leucocytosis, increased glucose and protein content

15. Investigation of choice for detection & characterization of interstitial lung disease is

a. MRI

b. Ventilation – Perfusion Scan

c. High resolution C.T. scan!!

d. Chest X - ray

16. Pulsus bisferiens is seen in all of the following except

a. Aortic stenosis & aortic regurgitation

b. Mitral valve prolapse !!

c. Severe aortic regurgitation

d. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

17. All of the following are true of osteomalacia except

a. Proximal myopathy

b. Raised serum calcium !!

c. Bone biopsy shows increased demineralized bone matrix

d. Vitamin D deficiency

18. Major cause of death in ESRD (End Stage Renal Disease) patients on dialysis is

a. Cardiovascular disease

b. Infection!!

c. Uremia

d. Respiratory failure

19. Acromegaly is characterized by all except

a. Diabetes

b. Enlarged nasal sinuses

c. Increased heel pad thickness

d. Muscular hypertrophy!!

20. Which of the following conditions is not associated with ST segment elevations on ECG

a. Early repolarization

b. Hyperkalemia

c. Acute pericarditis

d. Hypocalcemia !!

21. Which one of the following diseases can produce atrioventricular block

a. Lyme’s disease!!

b. Malaria

c. Typhoid

d. Leptospirosis

22. Which of the following is not a complication of Crohn’s disease

a. Fistula formation

b. Stricture

c. Perineal sepsis

d. Toxic megacolon!!

23. A 29 yrs old unmarried female presents with dyspnea. Her chest X – Ray is normal, FVC- 92 % & FEV1/FVC-89%. On exercise, her oxygen saturation drops from 92 % to 90 %. What is the most likely diagnosis ( DIRECT AIIMS RIP OFF)

a. Alveolar hypoventilation

b. Primary pulmonary hypertension!!

c. Interstitial lung disease

d. Anxiety

24. Which one of the following condition is not associated with clubbing

a. Primary biliary cirrhosis

b. Chronic bronchitis!!

c. Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis

d. Bronchiectasis

25. All of the following illness can occur at high attitude except

a. Cerebral oedema

b. Pulmonary oedema

c. Pulmonary barotraumas!! ( spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in smokers ....so NASA and IAF does not employ SMOKERS. )

d. Retinal hemorrhage (( i crossed checked on emedicine that is occurs.)

26. All of the following are features of cluster heacache except

a. It may be associated with unilateral photophobia/phonophobia

b. Onset of headache is nocturnal in about half of the patients

c. Patients tend to move about during attacks

d. Women are affected three times more often than men !!

27. Raynaud’s phenomenon has typical progression of colour change as follows

a. Red → Blue → White

b. Red → White → blue

c. blue → Red → White

d. White → Blue → Red!!

28. Human herpes virus 8 infection is associated with

a. Hairy cell leukemia

b. Kaposi sarcoma!!

c. Oral hairy leucoplakia

d. Molluscum contagiosum

29. All of the following are signs of hemorrhagic shock except

a. Tachycardia

b. Hypotension

c. Increased pulse pressure!!

d. Tachypnea

30. A man has had a lymph node biopsy. Histopathology of the node shows Reed – Sternberg cells. The most likely diagnosis is

a. Immune deficiency syndrome

b. Lymphoma!!

c. Tuberculosis

d. Non specific infection

31. A baby of 6 months weighing 8 kg is brought with acute diarrhea. He is drowsy and unable to drink. The ideal first line of management should be

a. Ringer lactate 250 ml in 1 hr

b. Ringer lactate 250 ml in 30 minutes!!

c. Ringer lactate 800 in 3 hrs

d. ORS 600-800 ml in 4 hrs

32. The ratio of chest compression to breathing in Pediatric life support is

a. 3:1!!

b. 4:1

c. 5:1

d. 6:1

33. Which type of cerebral palsy is most commonly seen as a sequel of billirubin encephalopathy

a. Spastic quadriparesis

b. Spastic diplegia

c. Atonic cerebral palsy

d. Extra pyramidal cerebral palsy!!

34. A 30 yrs old man presents with generalized edema, hematuria, hypertension and subnephrotic proteinuria (<2 gm). Urine examination shows microscopic hematuria, serum complement is decreased & positive for hepatitis C antibodies. The most likely diagnosis is

a. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

b. Mied cryoglobulinemia

c. Lupus nephritis

d. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis !!

35. Which of the following is not true for achalasia cardia

a. Absence of gastric air bubble in bubble in chest X – ray

b. Symptoms of dysphagia and chest pain

c. Decreased pressure of lower esophageal sphincter on manometry!!

d. Nifedipne is effective in treatment

36. Which of the following is the most reliable clinical endpoint to indicate adequate atropinisation in organophsphate poisoning

a. Pupillary dilatation

b. Control of diarrhea

c. Heart rate more than or equal to 100 beats/min!!

d. Absence of oropharyngeal secretions

37. Whipple’s triad does not include documentation for

a. High insulin level!!

b. Symptoms consistent with hypoglycemia

c. Low plasma glucose

d. Relief of symptoms after raising plasma glucose

38. “Bone within bone” appearance is classically seen in

a. Osteogenesis imperfect

b. Osteopetreosis!!

c. Renal osteodystrophy

d. Achondroplasia

39. Which of the following is not a feature of Turner’s Syndrome

a. Adult stature less than 145 cms

b. Long 4th metacarpals and metarsals !!

c. Medial Tibial Exostosis

d. Lymphedema of dorsa of hands

40. Pulmonary fibrosis is a side effect associated with the use of

a. Actinomycin

b. Bleomycin!!

c. Doxorubicin

d. Mithramycin

41. All of the following are true about neuroendocrine response in shock except

a. Incrased cortisol

b. Increased insulin!!

c. Increased glucagon

d. Increased epinephrine

42. Oligemic lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT

a. Transposition of great vessels

b. Atrial septal defect (ASD)!!

c. Tetralogy of Fallot

d. Pulmonary stenosis

43. Commonest causative organism for gas gangrene is

a. Clostridium septicum

b. Clostridium welchiii!!

c. Clostridium oedematiens

d. Clostridium histolyticus

44. (Patho) Renal vein thrombosis is most commonly associated with

a. Diabetic nephropathy

b. Membranous glomerulopathy!!

c. Minimal change disease

d. Membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis

45. (Patho) the most common complication of blood transfusion is

a. Haemolytic reaction

b. Embolism

c. Febrile and allergic reaction!!

d. Bacterial sepsis

46. Body mass index is calculated by

a. (weight in Kg/Height in meters2) 100!!

b. (weight in Kg/Height in meters3) 100

c. (weight in Kg2)/Height in meters2) 100

d. (weight in Kg/2 x Height in meters2) 100

47. A 14 years old boy presents with history of frequent fighting at school disciplinary problems, stealing money, truancy and vandalism. What is the most appropriate diagnosis:

a. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

b. Autistic disorder

c. Narcissistic personality disorder

d. Conduct disorder!!





Thursday, March 15, 2012

Last minute tips for MCI exam march2012


Last minute tips for  MCI exam march2012

1.       Its hot in india in march so its going to test your concentration skills in setting of physical stress. That means that even the questions you know are also gonna go wrong.
2.       Assuming that you are not a genius , keeping error rate as 50% ALL QUESTIONS ARE TO BE ATTEMPTED, but with logic.
3.       Hi fi MCQ are only less than 2% .
4.       After every 3-4 difficult ones , there is always a simple one. If you get the simple one wrong ….nobody but you are to blame
5.       PAPER 1 should be attempted with full enthusiasm and don’t rely on paper 2. The first hit is the best hit.
6.       Last 15 days study 12 hours per day. 4 hours quick read of notes . 3 hours of old mcq from punch and KKV of clinicals, 3 hours of anat , biochem and PSM . one hour of discussion in group of difficult ones asked to one another.
7.       Get of the internet NOW!

Thursday, February 23, 2012

AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 solved with references

AIIMS NOV 2011


PGDIAMS





1. Which of the following worsens of PGE 1 administration

a. Pulmonary stenosis without VSD

b. Obstructed TAPVC

c. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

d. Aortic interruption

Ans. (b)

Ref: Nelson 18th edition 1901, 1912, 1924, 1928



2. 7 days old baby with leakin meningo myelocele. First choice of investigation?

a. Wound C/S

b. Blood C/S

c. Rectal swab

d. Urine culture

Ans. (b)

Ref: Nelson 18th edition, page 2447



3. Steroid resistant nephritic syndrome due to?

a. ACE

b. NPHS2

c. LMX 1B

d. Hox 11

Ans. (b)

Ref. Nelson 18th edition, page 2195



4. A 7 year old child with fever, sore throat

MPO +ve

TLC-60,000 CD 33-ve

Plt- 20,000 CD 19+ve

CD 117+ve

CD 10 +ve

a. AML

b. ALL

c. Mixed

d. Biphenotypic

Ans. (d)

Ref: Wikipedia, http://tmc.gov.in/clinicalguidelines/ebm/vol5/pathology_final/cytometry/htm



5. All are true in the following except

a. Metabolic Acidosis is based defect > 12-16 Meq/L

b. Co2 is effectively cleared by placenta

c. Apgar score@ 1 min, indicator for neonatal resuscitation

d. Apgar score @ 7 min good indicator for neonatal death

Ans. (a)

Ref: nelson 18th edition, page 1855

http:/aappolicy.aappubilications.org/cgi/content/full/peadiatrics;117/4/1444



6. A 5 yr old child comes with episodic anaemia and jaundice from birth. All of the below are possible diagnosis except?

a. Sickle cell disease

b. G6 PD deficiency

c. Hereditatery spherocytosis

d. PNH

Ans. (d)

Ref. Nelson 18th edition, page 2021, 2025, 2027



7. Nestroft Test is used to detect?

a. Beta thalessemia

b. Hereditary spherocytosis

c. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

d. G6PD

Ans.(a)

Ref. Care of Newborn, Meharban singh 7th edition, page 39



8. young short stature girl with TSH increased, T4 decreased - mass in pituitary on MRI. What is the likely diagnosis?

a. Primary hypothyroidism

b. Pitutary tumor

c. Pituitary throtrophic adenoma

d. Resistance to action of Thyroxine

Ans. (a)

Ref. Nelson 18th edition, page 2325

9. Down syndrome is associated with all except

a. Trisomy 21

b. Mosaic 21

c. Robertsonian translocation t(21:13)

d. Deletion 21

Ans. (d)

Ref: Nelson 18th edition, page 507-509



10. A child with recurrent sinusitis with rhinitis, CXR shows dextrocardia, most probable diagnosis is:

a. Kartargener syndrome

b. Cystic Fibrosis

c. Beck with widemann syndrome

d. Brown sequard syndrome

Ans. (a)

Ref. Nelson 18th edition, 1817



11. All of the following about Vit.D metabolism are true except:

a. 25-ahydronylation takes place in liver

b. 1- a hydroxylation takes place in kidney

c. Daily requirement in the absence of'sunlight is 450-600IU/day J

d. Williams syndrome is associated with obesity, mental retardation, precious puberty

Ans. (d)

Ref. Nelson 18th edition



12. A 15 year old girl presents with recurrent pains in the knee with appearance of petechial haemorrhage, diagnosis is:

a. Amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia

b. Megakaryocytic thrombocytopenia

c. Factor VIM inhibitor

d. Platelet dysfunction

Ans. (b)

Ref: Harrison 18th edition



13. All of the following are mechanisms of thermogenesis in neonates except:

a. Shivering

b. Brown fat

c. Increase in movements of the baby

d. Cutaneous vaso constriction

Ans. (a)

Ref. Nelson 18th edition, page 680



14. Neonate presents with CHF of O/E bulging AF bruit on auscultation. Transfontanellar USG - hyerechoric midline mass with dilated lateral ventricles, diagnosis?

a. Vein of galen malformation

b. Encephalocele

c. Medulloblastoma

d. Arachnoid cyst

Ans. (a)

Ref. Nelson 18th edition,



15. The important fatty acid present in breast milk, which is important for growth is

a. Docosa hexaenoic acid

b. Palmitic acid

c. Linoleicacid

d. Linolenicacid

Ans. (a)

Ref. OP Ghai 6th edition.



MEDICINE

16. All of the following are preleukemic except?

a. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

b. Paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria

c. Myelo dysplastic syndrome

d. Aplastic anaemia.

Ans. (b)

KEF: Harrison 17th edition page 669,667,670



17. A female patient presents with history of Hb 6 g/dl. MCV 55, TLC 8000 cells/cum, PC -» 2.5 lakhs. She has no history of
transfusion. What is the diagnosis? ,

a. Anaemia of chronic disease

b. Iron deficiency anaemia

c. Thalassemia major

d. Thalassemia minor

Ans. (b)

Ref: Harrison page 17th edition page 641



18. All of the features are consistent with primary aldosteronism except

a. Diastolic hypertension without edema

b. Metabolic acidosis

c. Renin levels are low

d. High secretion of aldosterone inspite of reduced volume of fluid

Ans. (b)

Ref: Harrison 17th edition page 293



19. All of the following are true regarding SIADH except?

a. Vaptans are newly recomended drugs for treatment,

b. Water loading test is diagnostic

c. Urine Na+ is normal or low

d. Serum Na+ is < 125 m eq/l

Ans. (c)

Ref: Harrison page 2223, 17th

http://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/514125j6



20. Most common cause of Addison's disease in India

a. Idiopathic

b. Adrenal TB

c. HIV

d. Auto immune

Ans. (b)

Ref: NatlMedJ India. 2001Jan-Feb;14(1):23-5. Clinical profile and prognosis of Addison's disease in India. This study was done in SGPGI endocrinology department in INDIA. The conclusion of this study is as follows.



21. Which is the specific for rheumatoid arthritis?

a. IgM against Fc portion

b. IgG against Fc portion

c. IgA against Fc portion

d. AntiCCPAb

Ans. (d)

Ref: Harrison 17th edition page 2088.



22. All are true about brown sequard syndrome except?

a. Ipsilateral plantar extensor

b. Ipsilateral cortico spinal tract involvement.

c. Contralateral Dorsal column involvement.

d. Contralateral Spino Thalamic tract involvement.

Ans. (c)

Ref: Harhson 17th edition page 2589



23. A patient presented with abdominal pain, yellowish discolouration of sclera, clay coloured stools. All of the following are raised except?

a. 5' Nucleotidase

b. Glutamate Dehydrogenase

c. Alkaline Phosphatse

d. Gamma Glutamlyl Transferase.

Ans. (b)

Harrison 17th edition page 1925.



24. All are features of myelopathy except

a. Sensory loss of face

b. Brisk jaw jerk

c. Brisk knee jerk

d. Bladder incontinence urgency.

Ans.(a)



25. A 35 year old man having excessive sleep during work time attributing to disturbed sleep at night. He also has h/o falls in parties with friend's probable other symptoms he is having?

a. Generalised seizures while awake

b. Snoring with sleep apnea

c. Discomfort in legs before going to sleep

d. Hallucinations in sleep wake transition.

Ans. (d)



26. A 62 years old man presenting with focal seizures, renal clearance is good, drug of choice?

a. Valproate

b. Levateracitem

c. Oxcarbamezapine

d. Lamotrigine

Ans. (c)

Ref: Harrison page 2507, 17th edition



27. Hydrolysis by Hams test is positive. Which of the following is defective?

a. GPI Anchored protein

b. Complement deficiency

c. Spectrin binding

d. Mannose binding.

Ans. (a)

Ref: Harrison 17th edition page 661.



28. According to new world standards, false about Ml?

a. Sudden death can be due to Ml

b. 3 fold increase in Trop I following post CABG Ml

c. Recurrent Ml can be diagnosed by rise in troponin.

d. Echo test will show regional wall motion abnormalities.

Ans.(c)

Ref: Braunwald text book of cardiovascular medicine 8th edition 1383, 1208

http://ats.ctsnetjournals.Org/cgi/content/abstract/69/2/43



29. A Lady with no previous history of bleeding diathesis, Bleeding time is 3 minutes, PT 14V131, aPTT 35V251, plaletet count is 2.5 lakh. What is the likely diagnosis?

a. Lupus anticoagulant

b. vWB disease

c. Factor VIII inhibitor

d. Factor IX deficiency

Ans. (a)

Hair/son 17th edition page 1795.



30. D A patient has Hb 9 gram%. No previous history of transfusion MCV 60, RBC 4.5 million. What is the diagnosis?

a. Beta Thallessemia Minor

b. Beta Thallessemia Major

c. Iron deficiency anemia

d. Anemia of chronic disease

Ans. (a)>(c)

Ans. a.Beta Thallessemia Minor > c. Iron deficiency anemia

Ref: Harrison page 17th edition page 641



31. Dialysis related Amyloidosis is due to?

a. Beta2 microglobulin

b. AA

c. ATTR

d. AL

Ans. (a)

Ref: Harrison 17th edition page 2145.



32. In MS drug used to prevent EDSS?

a. IFN-Beta

b. Glatiramer acetate

c. Natalizumab

d. Methotrexate.

Ans. (a)

Ref: Harrison page 2617, 17th edition





33. A child presents with clinical features suggestive of demyelination. The chance of progression to MS is least with which of the following?

a. Absent oligoclonal band

b. Bilateral visual loss

c. Poor recovery

d. Complete cord transaction

Ans. (a)

Harrison's 18th ed. Chapter 380, Topic: Prognosis.



34. In Alzheimer's which of the following is not seen?

a. Aphasia

b. Acalculia

c. Agnosia

d. Apraxia

Ans. None of the above

REF: Hamson's 18th ed. Chapter 371. Topic: Alzheimer's diseaseg * / Clinical Manifestations).



35. A patient with hematuria and hypercalciuria, which is seen in urine analysis?

a. Isomorphic RBCs

b. Eosinophiluria

c. Nephrotic Range proteinuria

d. Dysmorphic RBCs

Ans. (a) Isomorphic RBCs

REF: Harrison's 18th ed. Chapter 44. Topic: Hematuria, Pyuria and) Casts.



36. Which of the following is not associated with systemic osinophilia and renal failure?

a. Drug induced

b. Radio contrast induced

c. Athero embolic induced

d. Polyangitis nodosa

Ans. (b)

Ref: Harrison's 18th ed. Chapter 279. Topic: Acute kidney injury/ Blood laboratory findings).



37. A patient with Bilateral radiologically proved VUR / reflux Nephropathy, with Nephrotic range proteinuria. What is the probable type of GN seen in this patient?

a. FSGS

b. Membranous GN

c. Membranoproliferative GN

d. Nodular sclerosis GN

Ans. (a)

REF: Harrison's 18th ed. Chapter 285. Topic:Vesicoureteral Reflux and Reflux Nephropathy.



38. A patient presents with one month history of fever, headache and 2days history of altered sensorium with CT brain showing basal meningitis. CSF analysis more likely will show?

CSF-protein CSF-Sugar Cytology

a. Increase Decrease Lymphocytosis

b. Increase Normal Lymphocytosis

c. Increase Normal ??

d. Increase Normal Neutrophil



Ans. (a)

Ref. Harrison’s 18th ed. Chapter 165. Topic Tuberculous meningitis and Tuberculoma.



39. In a case of renal papillary necrosis following tests are needed for establishing the diagnosis except?

a. Urine PCR for TB

b. Urine culture r

c. Acidification of urine test

d. Sickling

Ans. (c)

REF: Harrison's 18"ed. Chapter285. Topic: Sickle Cell Nephropath



40. In critically ill patient admitted in ICU, all are adequate measures taken to treat based on clinical trials except?

a. Use of low tidal volume will decrease acute lung injury

b. Aggressive goal directed reperfusion therapy, hourly monitoring of CVP, BP, urine output is adequate

c. Strict monitoring of glucose level in hyperglycemic patients known to improve survival

d. Use of Drotrecogin alpha is restricted for patients with APACHE score II > 25

Ans. (c)>(b)

Ref: Harrison's 18th ed. Chapter 267. Topic: Nutrition and Glyceml Control

41. Transcranial patch for Parkinson's disease?

a. Levodopa

b. Apomorphine

c. Rotigotine

Ans. (c)

Ref: Harrison's 18thed. Chapter372. Topic: Treatment: Parkinson's Disease.



42. A elderly man, known case of AS presents with syncope. He develops fatigue after 11 minutes of exercise while performing TMT as per BRUCE protocol. With ECHO, Systolic pressure gradient is found to be 60 mmHg. What is the most Appropriate management?

a. Coronory angiography

b. Follow up

c. Aortic balloon valvuloplasty

d. Valve replacement

Ans. (d)

Ref: Braunwald's Heart Disease 9th ed. Page:1472.



43. Which of the following is not a limb girdle dystrophy?

a. Spinocerebellar ataxia

b. Supranuclear palsy

c. Corticobasiler degeneration

d. Multiple system atrophy

Ans. (b)

Ref: Harrison 16th Edn., p. 2413-2414



44. Which of the following exclusively involve neurouns

a. Spinocerebeelar ataxia

b. Supranuclear palsy

c. Corticobasilar degeneration

d. Multiple system atrophy

Ans. (a)

Ref. Harrison’s 16th ed. P. 2413-2414



45. Lady 25 yrs-fever 1 month, ataxia, head ache, imaging showing dilated ventricles, meningeal enhancement. Likely CSF finding

a. Lymphocytic pleocytosis, low sugar, high protein

b. Lymphocytic, low sugar, low protein

c. Lymphocytic, high sugar, low protein

d. Neutrophilic, low sugar high protein

Ans. (a)

Ref. Harrison 17th edition, page 1009, 1012, 1018



46. A months pregnant lady a konow case of juvenile myoclonicepilepsy onsoddium valproate, presents to you, what is your advice?

a. Stop valproate & shift to lamotrigine

b. Contine valproate and monitor the serum levels

c. Give valproate & add lamotrigine

d. Change to carbamazepine

Ans. (b)

Ref. Harrison 17th edition, page 2500



47. Diabetes is best diagnosed by

a. FBS 100 and PPBS 140

b. FBS > 125 and PPBS>199

c. HbA1c =5.5%

d. FBS more than 70

Ans. (b)

Ref. Harrison text book of medicine 18th table 344-2



48. A 25 year old lady on treatment for rheumatoid arthritis has the following lab findings.-Haemoglobin -6g, MCF-60fl, RBC=2.5 laksh, Ferritin-200ng/ml. Transferrin-298 mg/dl iron-=30. What is the probable diagnosis?

a. Thalassemia

b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

c. Anemia of chronic disease

d. Iron deficiency anemia

Ans. (c)

Ref. Harrison Text Book of Medicine, 18th edition, Table 103-4





PHYSIOLOGY

49. Tidal volume excessive load din prevented by

a. Bronchial stretch receptor

b. J receptor

c. Arterial baroreceptor

d. Thoracic muscle spindle

Ans. (a)

Ref. Ganong’s review of medical physiology 23rd edition p.627, 632



50. Anticoagulant of choice for anticoagulant assay

a. 3.2% trisodium citrate

b. Heparin

c. EDTA

d. Sodium Oxalate

Ans. (a)

Ref. Diagnosis of hemophilia and bleeding disorders 2nd edition p.11



51. Not the primary action of GUT flora

a. Mucus Fermentation

b. Vit. K Fomation

c. Control of epithelial proliferation

d. Undigested fat converted to short fatty acids

Ans. (a)

Ref. Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology 23rd edition p.458



52. True regading Prothromin Times is

a. Collected sample should be refrigerated immediately

b. Platelet rich plasma

c. Run within 2 hours

d. Activated by kaolin

Ans. (c)

Ref. Diagnosis pf Hemophilia and bleeding disorders 2nd edition p.10 to 12, 37, 40



53. About 3rd nerve palsy all are true except?

a. Ptosis

b. Diplopia

c. Outward Deviation of Eye

d. Miosis

Ans. (d)

Ref. Ganong’s review of medical physiology 23rd edition p.263



54. Dilator Pupillae supplied by

a. Postganglionic parasympathetic. Edinger westphal nucleus

b. Postganglionic sympathetic from cervical sympathetic chain

c. 3rd cranial nerve

d. Sympathetic fibres of fronto orbital branch of tringeminal nerve

Ans. (b)

Ref. Ganong’s review of medical physiology 23rd edition p. 261 -265



55. All are correct except

a. Glucose concentration of glomerular filtrate same as plasma

b. Oncotic pressure in efferent arteriole is less than that of afferent arteriole

c. Contriction of afferent arteriole decreases the capillary pressure

d. Hematocrit increased as blood travels through glomerulus

Ans. (b)

Ref. Ganong’s Review as blood travels through glomerulus



56. All occur in hypothermia except?

a. Total peripheral resistance decrease

b. Cardiac arrythmia

c. Renal failure

d. Reversible co-agulopathy

Ans. (a)

Ref. Ganong’s review of medical physiology 23rd edition p.286



57. LDL Receptors-True except

a. Exclusively extrahepatic

b. Cell to cell receptor medicated endocytosis

c. Clathrin coated Pits

d. LDL Receptors are down regulated on increase cholesterol in tissues

Ans. (a)

Ref. Ganong’s review of medical physiology 23rd edition p.27



58. Mean arterial pressure is calculated as (Repeated AIIMS Nov. 2006)

a. (SBP +2DBP)/3

b. (DBP+2SBP)/3

c. (SBP+3DBP)/2

d. (DBP + 3SBP)/2

Ans. (a)

Ref. Ganong, 22nd Edn., p. 587-588



BIOCHEMISTRY

59. CPT 1 is ihbited by

a. Glucose

b. Acetyl COA

c. Malonyl COA

d. Pyruvate

Ans. (c)

Ref. Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p. 184-186



60. In well fed state, gluconeogensis in liver is inhibited by

a. Alanine content in liver

b. Protein breakdown in muscle

c. ADP level

d. cGMP

Ans. (c)

Ref. Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p.137 to 139



61. Insulin amino acid sequence and molecular structure discovered by, and he got noble prize for the same?

a. Sanger

b. Banting and best

c. Edman

d. McLeod

Ans. (a)

Ref. Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p.24-25



62. For Commercial preparation of insulin, by recombinant technology first step is isolation of

a. DNA from lymphocytes

b. DNA from beta cells

c. mRNA from lymphocytes

d. mRNA from beta cells

Ans. (d)

Ref. Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p.388-403



63. Not Needed in PCR

a. Deoxyribonucleotide

b. Dideoxyribonucleotide

c. DNA template

d. Thermostable polymerase

Ans. (b)

Ref. Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p. 394, 395



64. Subtelomeric rearrangements can be dianosed by except

a. FISH

b. MAPH

c. MALDI

d. CGH

Ans. (c)

Ref. Tietz textbook of clinical chemistry 4th edition p. 1123 to 1131



65. All are true about oxygenase except

a. Incorporation of 1 oxygen ATOM

b. Incorporation of 2 oxygen ATOM

c. Involved in hydroxylation

d. Involved in carboxylation of steroids

Ans. (d)

Ref. Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p. 51-52



66. CAP in LAC operon

a. Positive regulator

b. Negaive regulator

c. Operator

d. Promoter

Ans. (a)

Ref. Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p.371 to 373



67. Which is not required for translation or protein synthesis in eukaryotes

a. Ribosomes

b. Peptidyl transferase

c. Amino acyl tRNA synthetase

d. RNA polymerase

Ans. (d)

Ref. Herper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p. 353



68. A 30 yrs old man with LDL-600 mg/dl and THL -140 mg/dl which of the following is manifestation?

a. Tendon xanthoma

b. Eruptive xanthoma

c. Plantar xanthoma

d. Lipemia retinalis

Ans. (a)

Ref. Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p. 232



69. If 4 nucleotides code for an amino acid, theoretically how many amino acids are possible?

a. Same quaternary structure

b. Same nomenclature & number

c. Same site of action & kinetics

d. Same tissue distribution

Ans. (d)

Ref. Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p. 56



70. Which is true statement of isoenzymes

a. Same quaternary structure

b. Same nomenclature & number

c. Same site of action & kinetics

d. Same tissue distribution

Ans. (b)

Ref. Harper’s Illustrated biochemistry 28th edition p.56



71. Poly (A) tail codes for which amino acid

a. Poly lysine

b. Poly alanine

c. Poly proline

d. Poly glycine

Ans. (a)

Ref. Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p. 354



72. About PTH regulation false is?

a. Un ionized Ca2+directly regulates PTH secretion

b. Magnesium has the miliar actions as that of Ca2+

c. Parathramone related protein is responsible for Hypercalcemia in cancer

d. Ca SR in parathyroid respnnsible for calcium regulation

Ans. (a)

Ref. Ref. Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p. 439 to 440



73. Chemical barrier which prevents bacterial colonization in all microbial exposed areas?

a. Glycogen

b. Lysozyme

c. Lactose

d. Acidic pH

Ans. (b)

Ref. Herper’s Illusrated Biochemistry 28th edition p.35

74. Alanine is increased in blood, in starvation because

a. Increased muscle breakdown

b. Increased glucogenic fatty acid

c. Increased permeability of capillaries

d. Decreased alanine usage in gluconeogensis in liver

Ans. (a)

Ref. Haper’s Illustrated biochemistry 28th edition p.137 to 140



75. On prolonged starvation, which maintain rate of gluconeogenesis in liver?

a. Alanine pool in liver

b. Fatty acid pool in liver

c. Decreased CAMP

d. ADP in liver

Ans. (a)

Ref. Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 28th edition p.137 to 140



76. Chymotripsinogen is a

a. Zymogen

b. Carboxypetidase

c. Transaminase

d. Elastase

Ans. (a)

Ref. Lippincott 3rd edition pg-440, Harper 26th edition, p-477



77. More than one codon coding for single amino acid

a. Degeneracy

b. Frame shift mutation

c. Transcription

d. Mutation

Ans. (a)

Ref. Harper 28th edition



78. A PHC medical officer wants to send blood sample for glucose estimation to a district hospital. What is the preservative that should be used?

a. EDTA

b. Calcium oxalate

c. Potassium oxalate +NaF

d. Potassium oxalate* NaI

Ans. (c)

Ref. Clinical Chemistry by Tietz, p.82

79. Chromosomal mutations can be identified from all except

a. Single stranded conformation polymorphism

b. Dideoxy nucleotide trail sequencing

c. Agarose gel electrophoresis

d. Denaturing Gradient Gel Electrophoresis (DGGE)

Ans. (c)

Ref. Tietz Textbook of clinical chemistry 4th ed. P. 1111 to 1121



SURGERY

80. Motorcyclist, trauma due to fast moving vehicle, taken for emergency laparotomy, on left side normal, on right side non pulsatile, stable haematoma seen in contrast study (IVU) contrast is not taken, all vessels are normal. What is the next step in management?

a. On table cystourethrography

b. Nephrectomy

c. Seperation of Gerota’s fascia and exposure of renal vessels

d. On table renal arteriography

Ans. (c)

Ref. Schwartz’s principles of Surgery, 9/edn. P.1465-66 Table 40.2



81. On USG finding in Congenital Hypertorophic pyloric stenosis what is not seen?

a. >95% cases it is accurate

b. Length of Seg. >16mm

c. Thickness >4mm

d. High gastric residue

Ans. (d)

Ref. Schwartz’s principles of Surgery, 9/edn. P.1425-26



82. Most common site of cholangiocarcinoma is?

a. Perihilar

b. Intrahepatic duct

c. Distal biliary duct

d. Multifocal

Ans. (a)

Ref. Schwartz’s principles of Surgery, 9/edn. P.1162, Fig.32.26



83. Inexperienced surgeon is operating for cholecystectomy accidentally found CBD stone. What is further best management?

a. Laproscopic cholecystectomy with laparascopic stone removal

b. Open cholecystectomy with CBD exploration

c. Conversion to open cholecystectomy with choledhocoduodenostomy

d. Removal of stone through cystic duct

Ans. (B)

Ref. Schwartz’s principles of Surgery, 9/edn. P.1152-53



84. Post surgery Ileus maximum manifestation common by

a. Colon

b. Ileum

c. Stomach

d. Duodenum

Ans. (a)

Ref. Schwartz’s Principles of surgery, 9/ed. P. 992



85. Post operative complication of Iloe anal pouch amastomosis in ulcerative colitis?

a. Small bowel obstruction

b. Pouchitis

c. Perianal complication

d. Pelvic abscess

Ans. (b)

Ref. Schwartz’s principles of Surgery, 9/edn. P.1032



86. Which of the following enzyme is not used for prognosis acute pancreatitis?

a. Serum amylase

b. Serum calcium

c. Serum glucose

d. Serum lipase

Ans. (a)

Ref. Schwart’s Principles of Surgery, 9/ed. P. 1181, 83 & Tables



87. Which fruit juice helps in preventing UTI

a. Grape

b. Raspberry

c. Cranberry

d. Orange

Ans. (c)

Ref. Harrison 17th edition page 2469



88. A person presented with H/O RTA, there was anaesthesia below the level of umbilicus, and bladder and bowel disturbances, tenderness present over D10-D12 Vertebrae pulse steroid therapy to be instituted is

a. 30mg/kg within 2 hours

b. 60 mg/kg within 9 hours

c. 75 mg/kg within 12 hours

d. 45 mg/kg within 6 hours

Ans. (a)

Ref. Schwartz’s Principles of surgery, 9/ed. P 1530



89. Trauma to which of the following artery will produce least damage to the organs?

a. Superior mesenteric artery

b. Inferior mesenteric artery

c. Celiac trunk

d. Renal artery

Ans. (b)

Ref. Schwartz’s principles of surgery, 9/edn.



90. Calcification around Foramen of Monro, with preiventicular infiltrate, raised intracranial tesnsion mass and below 3rd ventricle is seen in?

a. Ependymoma

b. Sub epedydomal-astrocytoma

c. Neuronal-cyst

d. Central neurocytoma

Ans. (b)

Ref. www.icdns.og/forums/index.php?showtopic=23.radiopaedia.org/articles/subependymal-giant-cell-astrocytoma



91. True about peripheral vascular disease in the lower limb are all except

a. Ankle brachial index<0.5 indicate sever ischemia

b. Smoking is more specific for peripheral vascular disease than for cardiovascular disease

c. ABI changes during exercise than at rest

d. L-arginine causes Ednothelial independent Vasodilation

Ans. (d)

Ref. Schwartz’s Principles of Surgery, 9th ed.,p.704





ANATOMY

92. Which of the following is not a part of superficial perineal pouch

a. Posterior scrotal artery

b. Bulbo spongiosis

c. Sphinter urethrae

d. Ducts of bulbourethral glands

Ans. (c)



93. Which of these is lateral to SAC of femoral hernia?

a. Femoral artery

b. Femoral vein

c. Femoral nerve

d. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

Ans. (b)

Ref. Schwartz’s Principles of surgery, 9 ed. P. 1312



94. Investigation of choice for Zenker’s diverticulum

a. Barium Swallow

b. Manometry

c. Ednoscopy

d. Dual CT

Ans. (a)

Ref. Schwartz’s Principles of surgery, 9 ed. P 848



95. The structure not passing through oesophageal hiatus is

a. Right phrenic nerve

b. Left gastric artery

c. Right vagus

d. Left vagus

Ans. (a)

Ref. B.D Chaurasia’s human anatomy, volume –II 4/e p. 310



96. Which does not from liver capsular plate

a. Ductal plate

b. Hilar plate

c. Umbilical plate

d. Cystic plate

Ans. (a)

Ref. J hepatobiliary Pancreat Surg., 200; 7(6) 580-6



97. Which of the following is not associated with a defect in neural migration?

a. Lissencephaly

b. Schizencephaly

c. Polymicrogyria

d. Focal cortical brain maldevelopment

Ans. (d)

Ref. NINDS [National Institute of Neurological Disease & Stroke]/NH.

http://www.ninds.nih.gov/disorders/neuronal_migration/neuronal _migration.htmh



PHARMACOLOGY

98. Dugs not used in Multiple Sclerosis

a. Glatiramer

b. IF β 1a

c. IF β 1b

d. Mycophenolate

Ans. (d)

99. Efavirenz is

a. Reverse transcriptase inhibitor

b. Protease inhibitor

c. Integrase inhibitor

d. Inhibitor entry of HIV into cell

Ans. (a)

100. Brinzolamide is

a. Highly selective competitive antagonist and reversible inhibitor of CA inhibitor

b. Highly selective competitive antagonist and irreversible inhibitor of CA inhibitor

c. Highly selective noncompetitive antagonist and reversible inhibitor of CA inhibitor

d. Highly selective noncompetitive antagonist and irreversible inhibitor of CA inhibitor

Ans. (c)

101. True about Octreotide is

a. Stimulates GI secretion

b. Prevents secretary diarrhea

c. Can be given orally

d. Cannot be used in acromegaly

Ans. (b)

102. Wrongly matched optons, regarding drug metabolism is

a. Calcium channel blocker-CYP344

b. Digoxin-P.Glycoprotein

c. Simvastatin-Glucoronide conjugation

d. Carvedilol-CYP2A6

Ans. (d)

103. Bremelanotide is used in

a. Erective dysfunction

b. Prostate carcinoma

c. LUTS

d. Renal CA

Ans. (a)

104. 1% Pilocarpine instilled to a person with dilated pupil. It does not constrict

a. Diabetic with IIIN palsy

b. Pharmacological blockade

c. Adie tonic pupil

d. Uncal herniation

Ans. (b)

105. After giving Thiazine diuretic for HTN. What is seen in 24 hour urine is

Na+ K+ Ca+

a. ↑ ↑ ↑

b. ↓ ↑ ↑

Or

b. ↓ ↓ ↑

c. ↑ ↓ ↑

d. ↑ ↑ ↓

Ans. (d)

106. Most recent oral direct thrombin inhibitor

a. Dabigartran

b. Danaparoid

c. Ximalagatran

d. Fondaparinux

Ans. (a)

107. Peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 is inhibited by all except

a. Propylthiouracil

b. Propranolol

c. Methimzole

d. Amiodarone

Ans. (c)

108. Lid retraction is caused by

a. Apraclonidine

b. Brimonidine

c. Travoprost

d. Danoprost

Ans. (a)

109. Ozurdex:

a. Dexamethasone 0.7%

b. Hydrocortisone

c. 0.7% Triamcinolone acetonide

d. 0.5% Triamcinolone acetonide

Ans. (a)

110. MRSA resistance the following drug should not to be used is

a. Cefaclor

b. Cotrimoxazole

c. Ciprofloxacin

d. Vancomycin

Ans. (a)

111. Chloroquine toxicity predisposed by all except

a. Total daily dose of > 350 mg

b. Cumulative does of 460 gm

c. Renal failure

d. Given for more than 2 yrs

Ans. (a)

112. Adrenaline, noradrnaline dopamine acts through which receptor

a. Seven pass receptor

b. Four pass receptors

c. Single pass

d. Ligand gated receptor

Ans. (a)

MICROBIOLOGY

113. A 5 year old boy with a pustular lesion in the leg. The isolate shows Gram +Ve cocci colony shows β Hemolysis. Which test helps to identify the organism?

a. Bile solubility

b. Optocain sensitivity

c. Bacitracin sensitivity

d. Novobiocin sensitivity

Ans. (c)



114. Which of the following Regarding bacterial Resistance is not true?

a. Most Bacterial Resistance is due to Production of peinicilin Degrading enzymes

b. Plasmid Mediated Resistance is always transmitted vertically only

c. Most Enterococcal Species produce Resistance by degrading target receptor (PBP)

d. Complete elimination of the target by pneumococcus species

Ans. (b)

Important references:

1) http://jac.oxfordjournals.org/content/56/3/463.ful.pdf

2) http://www.horizonpress.com/cimb/v/v5/10/pdf

3) http://www.ncbi.hlm.nih.gov/pubmed/2187594

4) http://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/494612_2



115. A 22 year male H/o burning micturition and urinalysis showed No organisms but abunadant puss cells. Which of the following is the diagnostic modality?

a. Mc Coy cell culture

b. Thayer martin medium

c. Cooked neat Broth

d. Levinthal medium

Ans. (a)



116. A 70 year old man presented with fever and dry Cough, a gram negative organism shows growth only in charcoal yeast agar the organism is?

a. Legionella

b. Pneumococcus

c. Bartonella

d. H. influenza

Ans. (a)



117. Bacteria coated with complement & Ig, phagocytosis is enhanced by?

a. Receptor mediated Endocytosm

b. Pseudopod formation

c. Myelperoxidase mediated destruction

d. C3b-Fc mediate Destruction

Ans. d>c



118. Which is used as an indicator in autoclave

a. Bacillus subtillus

b. Bacillus stearothermophilus

c. C. perfringens

d. C. tetani

Ans. (b)

Ref. http://ehs.virginia.edu/biosafety/bio.documents/autoclaving_Guidlines.pdf & http://www.ehs.iastate.edu/cms/defaultasp?ID=31&=article (the Virginia state policy and the lowa state university principles)



119. A patient admitted to ICU is on central venous line for last one week. He is on ceftazidine and amikacin. After 7 days of fever he develops a spike of fever. On his blood culture, gram positive cocci in chains are found, while are catalase negative. So he was started on vancomycin, but culture remained positive for same organism even after two weeks of therapy, most likely organism?

a. Staph.aureus

b. Viridian streptococci

c. Enterococcus faecalis

d. Coagulase negative staphylococcus

Ans. (c)



120. False about bacteroides is

a. LPS from bacteroides is structurally and functionally different from conventional endotoxin

b. Most common organism isolated in culture

c. DIC and shock common in septicaemia due to bacteroids

d. Not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole

Ans. (c)



121. Maternal to child transmission of HIV is prevented by?

a. Nevirapine

b. Lamivudine

c. Didanosine

d. Abacavir

Ans. (a)



P.S.M

122. Socialization medicine does not includes?

a. Eliminates competition between the doctor?

b. Free of cost health provisions by state

c. Ensures complete utilization of health services

d. Ensure universal coverage of health services

Ans. (c)

Ref. Par textbook of preventive & social medicine 21st edition p.9



123. Direct standardization is used for comparing mortality rates between two countries. This is doen because of difference in:

a. Age distribution

b. Neumerator

c. Denominator

d. Sex

Ans. (a)

Ref. Park textbook of preventive and social medicine 21st edition page 55)

124. INA study in UK, and association was found between increase in sale of anti arrhythmic drugs and deaths related to asthma over 15 years. This is an example of which study?

a. Case control

b. Cohort

c. Prospective study

d. Ecological study

Ans. (d)

Ref. Modern Epidemiology, 3rd Edition. Rothman, Kenneth J; Greenland, Sander; Lash, Timothy L)



125. For the diagnostic of SLE, 6 tests are employed in dat 4 are positive, 2 are negative. To know the probability of SLE

a. Sensitivity and specificity of each test/prior probability of SLE in that area

b. Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test

c. Incidence each prevalence of SLE

d. Relative risk of SLE in the patient

Ans. (a)

Ref. Textbook of public health and community medicine WHO-AFMC)



126. Hardy-weinber equilibrium is affected by all except

a. Mutation

b. Migration

c. Small population

d. Random mating

Ans. (d)

Ref. A Dictionary of Epidermiology, Fifth Edition Oxford University press, 2008)



127. Hardy Weinberg law is violated in

a. Non-random mating

b. Mutation

c. Small population

d. Gene flow

Ans. (c)

Ref. Ganong’s Review of Medical physiology 23rd edition



128. Which of the following gives the most accurate result

a. Randomised controled trial with double blinding

b. Cohart Study

c. Cohart sectional study

d. Meta analysis /(systemic review analysis)

Ans. (d)



Ref. Basis & clinical Biostatistics, 4th edition Beth Dawson, Robert G. Trapp & Various sources)



129. For a blood sample, HB values are 9.1, 9.2, 10.2, 10.2, 9.3, 9.6, 9.7, 9.8

For the same sample of blood of calorimetric study the values are 10.1 gm/dl. The test has

a. High validity & high reliability

b. High validity & low reliability

c. Low validity & low reliability

d. Low validity & high reliability

Ans. (c)

Ref. Textbook of Public health and community medicine WHO-AFMC)



130. Syndromic management for genital ulcer disease in India, includes following

a. Chancroid chancre

b. Primary chanere, herpes genitalis

c. Chancroid, Primary chanere, herpes genitalis

d. Chancroid, genitalis only

Ans. (c)

Ref. Textbook of public health and community Medicine WHO-AFMC



131. Best method of compare a new test gold standard test is

a. Regression studies

b. Correlational analysis

c. Bland and altman analysis

d. Kimorogov schir

Ans. (C)

Ref. BJA 2007 & various sources)





ORTHOPEDICS

132. A 50 years old female presented with C/o unable to flex thumb, index finger, middle finger which of the test performed to make diagnosis except

a. Phalen test

b. Finkelstein test

c. Tinel sign

d. Tourniquest test

Ans. (b)

Ref. Campbell orthopaedic surgery; pg-3762



133. A diabetic patient presented with flexion deformity f 15 degrees of right little finger TOC?

a. Subtotal fasciectomy

b. Percutaneous fasciotomy

c. Total fasciectomy

d. Observation

Ans. (d)

Ref. Apleys system of orthopedics, Pg. 423, campbells orthopaedics surgery pg.3753



134. A cricketer got injured while catching the ball, complains of pain at base of thumb, which muscle to be injured

a. Abductor pollicis longus

b. Extensor pollicis brevis

c. Volar plate

d. Ulnar collateral ligament

Ans. (d)

Ref. apleys orthopedics, pg. 795, principals and practice of orthopaedics sports medicine pg.244



135. Gallow’s traction used for

a. # Tibia

b. # Femur

c. # Humerus

d. # Cervical spine

Ans. (b)

Ref. Maheshwari



136. In osteoarthritis which muscle get obviously waster or affected?

a. Only quadriceps

b. Quadriceps and hamstrings

c. Only popilteus

d. Gastroenemius

Ans. (a)

Ref. Apleys system of orthopedics



137. A patient with anterior dislocation of shoulder, what is the possible mechanism involved?

a. Abduction and internal rotation

b. Abduction and internal rotation

c. Abduction and external rotation

d. Abduction and external rotation

Ans. (c)

Ref. Apleys orthopedics



138. Spondylosthisis can be diagnosed by all except

a. CT

b. MRI

c. X ray spine AP view

d. Xray spine lateral view

Ans. (c)



139. Patient with c/o pain in the lower back. On examination unable to extend the grate toe right, but no sensory involvement. Probable disc prolapsed at

a. L3-L4

b. L4-L5

c. L5-S1

d. S1-S2

Ans. (b)

Ref. Campbell orthopaedic surgery pg-1999



140. CV junction malformations caused by all except

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

b. Ankylosing spondylitis

c. Odontoid dysgenesis

d. Basilar invagination

Ans. (b)



141. Which is not an indicator of bone formation

a. Alkaline phosphatase

b. Procollagen residue

c. Osteocalcin

d. Hydroxyproliine

Ans. (d)

Ref. Tureks system of orthopedics,



142. A patient presents with heterotopic ossicfication around the knee joint. The laboratory investigation of choice in him is.

a. Serum calcium

b. Serum alkaline phosphatase

c. Serum phosphorus

d. Serum Acid phosphatase

Ans. (b)

Ref. Wheeless textbook of orthopaedics; Garland D.E.A clinical perspective on common forms of acquired heterotopic ossification CORR No. Feb. 1991; Other Journal articles



RADIO DIAGNOSIS

143. How do you differentiate between epidermoid cyst and arachnoid cyst?

a. Contrast enhanced MRI

b. Smooth margins

c. Decreased flair

Ans. (c)



144. About hibernating myocardium all are true except

a. Low does dobutamine scar

b. After rest thallium scar

c. If akinesia revasculatisation will not help

d. Gadolinium scan is not done

Ans. (c)

Ref. Radiology Review Manual, -by Wolfgang Dahnert 6th edition



145. Charactersitic of cavernous hemangioma

a. Popcorn calcification

b. Well-defined nidus

c. Feeding arteries

d. Phelbectasia

Ans. (a)

Ref. Diagnostic Neuro radiology by Anne. G. Osborn 2nd edition



146. IOC for meningeal carcinomatosis

a. NCCT

b. MRI contrast enhanced

c. PET –CT

d. SPECT

Ans. (b)

Ref. Diagnostic Neuroradiology by Anne. G. Osborne 2nd edition.



147. A young male after 2 months of trauma presents with bilateral proptosis, chemosis, subconjuctival hemorrhage & inability to move eyes (cavernous sinus thrombosis) what is the IOC?

a. Intra arterial digital subtraction angiography

b. MR-angiography

c. MRI

d. CT

Ans. (b)

Ref. Nontraumatic Orbital Conditions: Diagnosis with CT and MR imaging in the Emergent Setting –radiographics



148. All of the following are used in deep wave therapy except

a. Microwave

b. Ultrasonic wave

c. Infrared

d. Heat wave diathermy

Ans. (c)



149. Radioresistant layer in retina

a. Pigment layer

b. Gangion well layer

c. Bipolar cell layer

d. Rods & cones

Ans. (a)

Ref: Strangeways Research Laboratory, Cambridge –International Journal of Radiation Biology



150. 45 year old female complains of progressive weakness and spasticity of the lower limb with difficulty during micturition. CT scan shows an intradural mid dorsal midline enhancing lesion. The diagnosis is?

a. Meningioma

b. Intradural lipoma

c. Neuroepithelial cyst

d. Dermoid cyst

Ans. (a)

Ref. Harrison’s 16th Ed. Pg 2456; Dahnert’s Radiology Review manual 5th Ed. P.299-301





OBS/GYNA

151. All changes are normal during pregnancy except?

a. Increase storke volume

b. Increased cardiac output

c. Increased systemic vascular resistance

d. Increased intravascular volume

Ans. (C)

Ref. Williams 22/ed, pg 133-134



152. Fetal karyotyping can be done by all except

a. Cordocentesis

b. Amniocentesis

c. CVS

d. Feta skin biopsy

Ans. (d)

Ref. Williams 22/ed., pg. 328-331



153. Glucose tolerance test is indicated in all except?

a. Previous congenital anomaly

b. Previous eclampsia

c. Polyhydramnios

d. Previous unexpected fetal death

Ans. (b)

Ref. American Diabetes Association. Standards of medical care in diabetes-2007. Diabetes Care Jan 2007



154. All are inaccurate regarding forceps delivery except?

a. The anteroposterior diameter of head should not be more than 15 degree to the axis

b. Vertex and face presentation in mento anterior

c. The presenting part should be at zero station

d. Caput succedaneum is not a contraindication

Ans. (b)

Ref. Williams 22/ed pg 549



155. 17 years old girl came to OPD with primary amenorrhea and b/l inguinal hernia. Normal secondary sexual characteristics with absence of pubic hair. On USG uterus and ovary absent

a. Androgen insensitivity synd.

b. Turners syndrome

c. Mulerian agenesis

d. STAR syndrome

Ans. (a)

Ref. SPEROFF 7th Ed. Pg.402-406



156. A 16 year old girl with 6x6 cm right ovarian mass with absent AFP, negative CA125 and increased ALP, diagnosis is

a. Dysgeminoma

b. Mucinous cystadeno carcinoma

c. Endodermal sinus tumor

d. Teratoma

Ans. (a)

Ref. Novak’s 14th ed.



157. In postmenopausal women. HRT helps in all except

a. Vaginal dryness

b. Hot flushes

c. Coronary artery disease

d. Osteoporosis

Ans. (d)

Ref. Speroff 7th ed. , pga.663, 700



158. Normal ovarian function is seenin

a. MRKH

b. Ovarian dysgenesis

c. Swyer syndrome

d. Turner’s syndrome

Ans. (a)

Ref. Spheroff 7th., pg. 420-421



159. Gestational hypertension causes all except?

a. HELLP synd.

b. Acute renal failure

c. Fetal macrosomia

d. Eclampsia

Ans. (c)

Ref. WILLIAMS 22nd Ed. Pg.774-780



160. Treatment for prenatal CAH

a. Dexamethasone

b. Beta methasone

c. Prednisone

d. Hydrocortisone

Ans. (a)

Ref. Speroff 7th Ed., pg.330-338



161. An infertile women with B/L tubal block at cornua diagnosed on Hysterosalpingography, next treatment of choice is

a. IVF

b. Laparoscopy & Hysteroscopy

c. Tuboplasty

d. Hydrotubation

Ans. (b)

Ref. Speroff 7th ed., pg. 1013-1037



162. Tumor marker for granulose cell tumor

a. CA 19-9

b. Inhibin

c. CA 125

d. CA 50

Ans. (b)

Ref. Novak’s 14th ed.



163. After coming head in breech presentation difficult labour all except

a. Placenta previa

b. Extension head

c. Hydrocephalus

d. Incomplete dilatation of cervix

Ans. (a)

Ref. Williams 22nd ed., pg. 566-570



PSYCHIATRY

164. Type D personality are at risk of developing

a. Coronary artery disease

b. Depression

c. Schizophrenia

d. Personality disorder

Ans. (a)

Ref. No direct reference could be got from standard textbooks



165. Somatic passivity is a feature of

a. Depressive illness

b. Paranoid schizophrenia

c. Hypochondriasis

d. Panic disorder

Ans. (b)

Re. New oxford textbook of psychiatry 4.7.3 Descriptive clinical features of schizophrenia



166. Bipolar type II, is characterized by

a. Hypomania and depression

b. Hypomania and subsyndromal depression

c. Mania and subsyndromal depression

d. Hypomania and Dysthymia

Ans. (a)

Ref. New oxford textbook of psychiatry 4.5.3 Diagnosis, classification and differential diagnosis of mood disorders



167. Which of the following is not a specific somatoform disorder?

a. Somatisation disorder

b. Chronic fatigue syndrome

c. Irritable bowel syndrome

d. Fibromyalgia

Ans. (b)

Ref. ICD-10 and DSM –IV criteria



168. Counter transference is

a. Patient’s feelings towards therapist

b. Doctors feeling towards the patient

c. Psychic connection between patient and disease

d. Type of Defence mechanism

Ans. (b)

Ref. New oxford textbook of psychiatry 6.3.5 Psychoanalysis, and other long-term psychodynamic psychotherapies



169. Associated with panic disorder are all except

a. Seratonin

b. GABA

c. Dopamine

d. Glutamate

Ans. (d)

Ref. Next oxford textbook of psychiatry 4.7.3 panic disorder and agoraphobia



DERMATOLOGY

170. Intra epidermal intercellular IgG deposition is seen in?

a. Epidermolysis bullosa acquistica

b. Dermatitis herpetiformis

c. Bullous pemphgoid

d. Pemphigus vulgaris

Ans. (d)

Ref.

(1) Fizpatrick et al-profile of immune flouroscent studies in pemphgus-Arch of Dermatology, 2006, p. 116, 285-290

(2) Meurer et al-oral pemphigus vulgaris-A report 15 cases-Arch of Dermatology-1987, p.113, 1520-1524

(3) Kolulu et al, Human auto-antibodies against desmosocal core protein in pemphigus, Jr. of Exp. Medicine 2002, p. 1509-1518



171. Which of the following shows deposition of IgA in dermal papilla?

a. Dermatitis herpetiformis

b. Bullous impetigo/bullous Pemphigoid

c. IgG dermatosis of childhood /igA papillomatosis of childhood

d. Gestational herpes

Ans. (a)

Ref.

(1) Collin P et al., Recogniton of cutaneous and immunofluorescent manifestation of D.H-Am J clin Dermatol, 207 p.4 :13

(2) Reunalatl et al., Dermatitis Herpetiformis-Clin Dermatol, 2001 p.19:728



172. Only indication of systemic steroids in which types of Psoriais?

a. Pustular Psoriasis

b. Erythroderma

c. Psoriatic arthropathy

d. Impetigo herpetiformis

Ans. (d)

Ref.

(1) Cather JP, 2006 Combining traditional agents and biologics for the treatment of Psoriasis-Arch of Dermatol, p.24-37.

(2) Goffe B, et al., 2004 Dermatoses of Pregnancy, Am.J. Obstet Gynecol, p.188: 863



173. A boy with multiple bullous lesions over trunk and radiological examination shoed periostitis. What is the next investigation of choice?

a. VDRL for mother and child

b. PCR of maternal TB

c. HBs Ag screening

d. ELISA for mother and baby

Ans. (a)

Ref.

(1) Wender GD at al: Treatment of Syphilis in pregnancy and prevention of Congenital Syphilis, Clin. Infect. DIs., 207, p 35-64

(2) Vrui M, et al., Bone involvement in Congenital syphilis-An overview Clinical and Radiological, 2003, EUr J. Paediatr, p.162-184



174. A 5 years old boy presented in the casualty with multiple petechial hemorrhages. Lab investigation showed IgA deposits. Along the blood vessels the most likely diagnosis

a. Wegener’s granulomatosis

b. Henoch schonlein purpura

c. Kawasaki disease

d. PAN

Ans. (b)

Ref.

(1) Paller et al. lung lesions –Pulmonary hemorrhage-Complication of HSP, pediatr. Dermatol, 2002, p.14-299

(2) HSP An Overview –Clinical and Histological -Tancreede et al., Arch. Dermatol, 2005, P. 133-438



175. Treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease is?

a. Steroids

b. IV immunoglobulin

c. IV antibiotics

d. Methotrexate

Ans. (b)

Ref.

(1) Burns Jc, Glode MP: Kawasaki syndrome Lencet, 2007, p.364- 533

(2) Esper F et al: Association between a novel human corona virus and Kawasaki disease J inject. Dis 2005, p.191: 499

(3) Muta H, et al: Early intravenous gamaglobulin treatment for Kawasaki disease, Arch Dis child, 2004, p.89: 779

(4) Yamanchi H et al: optimal time of surgical treatment for Kawasaki Coronary artery disease J. Nippon med Sch 2004 p. 71: 279



176. A 20 year old man presented with recurrent oral ulcer with yellow base, erythematous hallow and nodules on skin probable diagnosis?

a. Drug eruption

b. Pemphigus vulgaris

c. Behcet’s syndrome

d. Herpes labialis

Ans. (c)

Ref.

(1) Arayssi et al: New insights into Pathogenesis and therapy of Behcets disease- Curr. Opin. Pharmacol, 2004, p.4: 183

(2) Bang D: clinical Spectrum of Behcets, J.Dermatol, 2007, p.28: 610

(3) Ghaten et al: Behcets and complex Aphthosis J.Am Acad. Dermatol, 2005 p.40:1



177. A 3 year old child has inthiotic lesion over scalp, face and extensor extremities. Mother gives H/O bronchial asthma. Diagnosis?

a. Atopic dermatitis

b. Seborrhoeic dermatitis

c. Contact dermatitis

d. Infantile eczematons dermatitis

Ans. (a)

Ref.

(1) Breuer at al: Safety and efficacy of Topical Tacrolimus in Childhood Atopic Dermatitis, 206, Am J. clim Dermatol, p.6: 65

(2) Stone KD: Atopic Diseases of Childhood, Curr. Opin. Paediatric.,2008, p. 15:495

(3) Wadonda N et al: A perspective Study of Atopic Dermatitis in Children, BR. J. Dermatol. 2005, p. 149: 1023



F.S.M

178. Patient diagnosed with delirium tremens assaulted his neighbor, after 4 days of abstinence from alcohol, this offence is

a. Punishable-criminal offence

b. Not punishable under section IPC 84

c. Partially responsible for his act

d. He is not responsible for his act

Ans. (b & d)

Ref. the essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Dr. K.S Narayana Reddy, 28/e; (Chapter 21-Forensic Psychiatry & Chapter 3-CNS depressants) p.411 & p. 510-511, pg. 423, chapter 21, Forensic Psychiatry



179. What is the punishment for medical negliance?

a. 2-5 years

b. 5 years

c. 10 years

d. Upto 2 years

Ans. (d)

Ref. The essentials of Forensic Medicine and toxicology, by Dr. K S Naryana Reddy , 28/e;(Chapter 3-medical Low and Ethics) p.34



180. IPC for hostile witness?

a. 151

b. 191

c. 141

d. 171

Ans. (b)

Ref. The Essentials of Forensic and Toxicology, by Dr. K.S Naryana Reddy, 28/e: (chapter 2 –legal procedure) p.11



181. According to human organ transplantation act (1994), the erring doctor can be punished upto?

a. Less than 1 yr

b. Less than 2 yrs

c. >5 yrs

d. 2-5 yrs

Ans. (d)

Ref. the essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, by Dr. K.S Narayana Reddy, 28/e: (Chapter 3-Medical Lw and Ethics) p.51



182. Issue of false medical certificate, is punishable under IPC?

a. 147

b. 157

c. 197

d. 137

Ans. (c)

Ref. The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, by Dr. K.S Narayana Reddy, 28/e; (Chapter 2-legal procedure) p.8



183. Stackes formula of teech is used for age group?

a. Infants

b. Old age

c. 25-50 years

d. Above 50

Ans. (a)

Ref. the Essentials of forensic Medicine and toxicology by Dr. K.S Narayana Reddy, 28/e ; (Chapter 4-identification) p.64



184. Flaying is a feature of which laceration

a. Tear

b. Streatch

c. Avulsion

d. Split

Ans. (c)

Ref. The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and toxicology,by Dr. K.S Narayana Reddy, 28/e; (Chapter 8-mechanical injuries) p.167



185. First ossification centre formation in intra uterine life

a. End of 2nd month

b. 3 month beginning

c. End of 3rd month

d. End of 4th month

Ans. (a)

Ref. The essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, by Dr. K.S Narayana Reddy, 28/e; (Chapter 4-idntification) p-74



186. Which is an incorrect match?

a. Murder-300

b. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder-304

c. Attempted suicide-306

d. Attempt murder-307

Ans. (c)

Ref. The Essentials of Foresic Medicine and Toxicolgy by Dr. K. S Narayana Reddy, 28/e; Chapter 10-Medico-legal Aspects of Wounds) p. 255-265



187. Best specimen for DNA testing in autopsy is

a. Liver

b. Brain

c. Kidney

d. Spleen

Ans. (d)

Ref. The Essentials of Foresic Medicine and Toxicolgy by Dr. K. S Narayana Reddy, 28/e; (Chapter 20-Blood stains) p.408



188. In palate printing most common site for taking prints

a. Posterior part of palate

b. Anterior part of palate

c. Lateral part of palate

d. Middle part palate

Ans. (b)

Ref. The Essentials of Foresic Medicine and Toxicolgy by Dr. K. S Narayana Reddy, 28/e; (Chapter 4- identification) p.78



OPHTHALMOLOGY

189. MIZOU phenomenon seen in

a. Oguchi’s disease

b. Choroidermia

c. Flavus albipunctatus

d. Flavus

Ans. (a)

Ref. kansky 6/e p. 683, 692



190. Drug used in LUMINATE programme for non infections uveitis is

a. Cyclosporine

b. Voclosporine

c. Methotrexane

d. Infliximab

Ans. (b)

Ref. www.luxbio.com



191. Azithromycin given for mass propylaxis, if prevalence of trachoma in children of 1-9 years is more than?

a. 10%

b. 6%

c. 8%

d. 4%

Ans. (a)

Ref. Parsons and internet –wikipedia



192. A young man following RTA presented with proptosis and pain in right eye after four days. o/E bruise on forehead and Rt eye what is the cause?

a. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

b. Internal carotid A.Aneurysm

c. Carotico cavernous fistula

d. Fracture of sphenoid

Ans. (c)

Ref. Parson’s 20/e



193. A young female presented with severe sudden bilateral visual loss more on right side with no perception of light. o/E fundus, Pupillary response, optokinetic nystagmus is normal, what is the cause?

a. Functional visual loss

b. Optic neuritis

c. Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy

d. CMV retinitis

Ans. (a)

Ref. Kanski 6/e



194. Endothelial cells lost in descemet membrane striping in ________keratoplasty?

a. 0.5%

b. 10-20%

c. 30-40%

d. 50-605

Ans. (C)

Ref. Corneal surgery Frederick S.Bright –Bill 4/e p. 66-67



195. In herpes zoster ophthalmicus all are present except

a. Pseudodendritic keratitis

b. Ant stromal keratitis

c. Sclerokeratitis

d. Endothetitis

Ans. (c)



196. Founders of vision 2020 are all except

a. WHO

b. UNICEF

c. ORBIS international

d. Agency for control of blindness

Ans. (b)

Ref. Vision 2020 CME series





ANAESTHESIA

197. Which of the following in anesthesia will produce decreased EEG activities

a. Hypothermia

b. Early Hypoxia

c. Ketamine

d. N20

Ans. (a)

Ref. Textbook of Anesthesia, Aitkenhead 2nd edition, p.187



198. Which of the following is not true about xenon anesthesia

a. Non explosive

b. Minimal cardiovascular side effects

c. Slow induction and slow recovery

d. Low blood gas solubility

Ans. (c)

Ref. www.expresshealthcaremgmt.com/20050515/criticare10.shtml A to Z text of Anaesthesia





PATHOLOGY

199. Endothelial retraction due to cytoskeletal rearrangement in acute inflammation is?

a. Immediate & Transient increased permeability

b. Immediate & prolonged permeability

c. Late & transient permeability

d. Late & prolonged permeability

Ans. (a)

Ref. Robbins and Cotrn pathologic Basis of Disease, 8/E



200. The 40 nm gap in between the tropocollagen molecule in collagen which server as the site of bone formation is occupied by which of the following

a. Calcium

b. Iron

c. Carbohydrate

d. Ligandmoiety

Ans. (a)

Ref. Robbins and cotran pathologic Basis of Disease, 8/E.h



201. Alzheimer’s disease, false?

a. Number of Neural plaques increase with age

b. Neural tangles and severity are directly proportional

c. Extracellular lesions occurs without intracellular lesions

d. Pressure of tau proteins

Ans. (c)