MCI MARCH 2012 medicine questions
1. Shrinking lung disorder is seen is
a. Sjogren’s syndrome
b. Systemic lupus eruthematosus (cant get simpler )
c. Polyarthritis nodosa
d. Behcet’s syndrome
2. The drug of choice in scleroderma induced hypertensive crisis is
a. ACE inhibitors ( malignant hypertension and renal crisis needs a permanent solution! so dont answer as nitroprusside as it will work for few minutes and then back to square one.
b. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
c. Β – blockers
d. Sodium nitroprusside
3. Schistocytes are seen in
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Megaloblastic anemia
c. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia !! also known as burr cells and helmet cells
d. Aplastic anemia
4. Puddle’s sign is used to detect
a. Chylothorax
b. Ascites!!
c. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
d. Renal artery stenosis
5. Oral vancomycin can be used for treatment of
a. Hepatic encephalopathy
b. Pseudomembranous colitis!!
c. Staphylococcal food poisoning
d. None of the above
6. Which of the following could suggest presence of an ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in a patient with hypercortisolism
a. Hypertension
b. Glucose intolerance
c. Metabolic alkalosis!!
d. Truncal obesity
7. After taking alcohol, a hitherto healthy individual has persisting vomiting and vomits blood. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Boerhaave’s syndrome
b. Mallory Weiss syndrome!!
c. Barrett’s oesophagus
d. Carcinoma oesophagus
8. The most radio sensitive tumor amongst the following is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Seminoma!!
c. Soft tissue sarcoma
d. Lympho epithelioma
9. Most useful investigation of choice for liver abscess is
a. Exploratory laparotomy
b. Ultrasound !!
c. Liver enzymes
d. Parasite in the stool
10. The commonest fluid used for fluid resuscitation in burns is
a. Normal saline
b. Ringer lactate!!
c. Human albumin
d. Fresh frozen plasma
11. All of the following are clinical signs of hypothyroidism except
a. Cardiomegaly
b. Pericardial effusion
c. Tachycardia!!
d. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk
12. Radio isotope scan used in the diagnosis of Meckel’s diverticulum is
a. Tc99!!
b. I131
c. HIDA
d. RBC labeled
13. ‘Bloody Triad’ of massive blood loss and transfusion is characterized by
a. Acidosis, hypotension and oliguria
b. Acidosis, hypotension and coagulopathy
c. Acidosis, hypothermia and coagulopathy!!
d. Acidosis, hyperthermia and coagulopathy
14. Examination of the synovial fluid in tuberculosis usually reveals the following
a. Low count of leucocytes, increased glucose content and decreased proteins
b. Leucocytosis, decrease of both glucose and protein content
c. Leucocytosis, decreased glucose content and a raised protein content!!
d. Leucocytosis, increased glucose and protein content
15. Investigation of choice for detection & characterization of interstitial lung disease is
a. MRI
b. Ventilation – Perfusion Scan
c. High resolution C.T. scan!!
d. Chest X - ray
16. Pulsus bisferiens is seen in all of the following except
a. Aortic stenosis & aortic regurgitation
b. Mitral valve prolapse !!
c. Severe aortic regurgitation
d. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
17. All of the following are true of osteomalacia except
a. Proximal myopathy
b. Raised serum calcium !!
c. Bone biopsy shows increased demineralized bone matrix
d. Vitamin D deficiency
18. Major cause of death in ESRD (End Stage Renal Disease) patients on dialysis is
a. Cardiovascular disease
b. Infection!!
c. Uremia
d. Respiratory failure
19. Acromegaly is characterized by all except
a. Diabetes
b. Enlarged nasal sinuses
c. Increased heel pad thickness
d. Muscular hypertrophy!!
20. Which of the following conditions is not associated with ST segment elevations on ECG
a. Early repolarization
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Acute pericarditis
d. Hypocalcemia !!
21. Which one of the following diseases can produce atrioventricular block
a. Lyme’s disease!!
b. Malaria
c. Typhoid
d. Leptospirosis
22. Which of the following is not a complication of Crohn’s disease
a. Fistula formation
b. Stricture
c. Perineal sepsis
d. Toxic megacolon!!
23. A 29 yrs old unmarried female presents with dyspnea. Her chest X – Ray is normal, FVC- 92 % & FEV1/FVC-89%. On exercise, her oxygen saturation drops from 92 % to 90 %. What is the most likely diagnosis ( DIRECT AIIMS RIP OFF)
a. Alveolar hypoventilation
b. Primary pulmonary hypertension!!
c. Interstitial lung disease
d. Anxiety
24. Which one of the following condition is not associated with clubbing
a. Primary biliary cirrhosis
b. Chronic bronchitis!!
c. Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
d. Bronchiectasis
25. All of the following illness can occur at high attitude except
a. Cerebral oedema
b. Pulmonary oedema
c. Pulmonary barotraumas!! ( spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in smokers ....so NASA and IAF does not employ SMOKERS. )
d. Retinal hemorrhage (( i crossed checked on emedicine that is occurs.)
26. All of the following are features of cluster heacache except
a. It may be associated with unilateral photophobia/phonophobia
b. Onset of headache is nocturnal in about half of the patients
c. Patients tend to move about during attacks
d. Women are affected three times more often than men !!
27. Raynaud’s phenomenon has typical progression of colour change as follows
a. Red → Blue → White
b. Red → White → blue
c. blue → Red → White
d. White → Blue → Red!!
28. Human herpes virus 8 infection is associated with
a. Hairy cell leukemia
b. Kaposi sarcoma!!
c. Oral hairy leucoplakia
d. Molluscum contagiosum
29. All of the following are signs of hemorrhagic shock except
a. Tachycardia
b. Hypotension
c. Increased pulse pressure!!
d. Tachypnea
30. A man has had a lymph node biopsy. Histopathology of the node shows Reed – Sternberg cells. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Immune deficiency syndrome
b. Lymphoma!!
c. Tuberculosis
d. Non specific infection
31. A baby of 6 months weighing 8 kg is brought with acute diarrhea. He is drowsy and unable to drink. The ideal first line of management should be
a. Ringer lactate 250 ml in 1 hr
b. Ringer lactate 250 ml in 30 minutes!!
c. Ringer lactate 800 in 3 hrs
d. ORS 600-800 ml in 4 hrs
32. The ratio of chest compression to breathing in Pediatric life support is
a. 3:1!!
b. 4:1
c. 5:1
d. 6:1
33. Which type of cerebral palsy is most commonly seen as a sequel of billirubin encephalopathy
a. Spastic quadriparesis
b. Spastic diplegia
c. Atonic cerebral palsy
d. Extra pyramidal cerebral palsy!!
34. A 30 yrs old man presents with generalized edema, hematuria, hypertension and subnephrotic proteinuria (<2 gm). Urine examination shows microscopic hematuria, serum complement is decreased & positive for hepatitis C antibodies. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
b. Mied cryoglobulinemia
c. Lupus nephritis
d. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis !!
35. Which of the following is not true for achalasia cardia
a. Absence of gastric air bubble in bubble in chest X – ray
b. Symptoms of dysphagia and chest pain
c. Decreased pressure of lower esophageal sphincter on manometry!!
d. Nifedipne is effective in treatment
36. Which of the following is the most reliable clinical endpoint to indicate adequate atropinisation in organophsphate poisoning
a. Pupillary dilatation
b. Control of diarrhea
c. Heart rate more than or equal to 100 beats/min!!
d. Absence of oropharyngeal secretions
37. Whipple’s triad does not include documentation for
a. High insulin level!!
b. Symptoms consistent with hypoglycemia
c. Low plasma glucose
d. Relief of symptoms after raising plasma glucose
38. “Bone within bone” appearance is classically seen in
a. Osteogenesis imperfect
b. Osteopetreosis!!
c. Renal osteodystrophy
d. Achondroplasia
39. Which of the following is not a feature of Turner’s Syndrome
a. Adult stature less than 145 cms
b. Long 4th metacarpals and metarsals !!
c. Medial Tibial Exostosis
d. Lymphedema of dorsa of hands
40. Pulmonary fibrosis is a side effect associated with the use of
a. Actinomycin
b. Bleomycin!!
c. Doxorubicin
d. Mithramycin
41. All of the following are true about neuroendocrine response in shock except
a. Incrased cortisol
b. Increased insulin!!
c. Increased glucagon
d. Increased epinephrine
42. Oligemic lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
a. Transposition of great vessels
b. Atrial septal defect (ASD)!!
c. Tetralogy of Fallot
d. Pulmonary stenosis
43. Commonest causative organism for gas gangrene is
a. Clostridium septicum
b. Clostridium welchiii!!
c. Clostridium oedematiens
d. Clostridium histolyticus
44. (Patho) Renal vein thrombosis is most commonly associated with
a. Diabetic nephropathy
b. Membranous glomerulopathy!!
c. Minimal change disease
d. Membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis
45. (Patho) the most common complication of blood transfusion is
a. Haemolytic reaction
b. Embolism
c. Febrile and allergic reaction!!
d. Bacterial sepsis
46. Body mass index is calculated by
a. (weight in Kg/Height in meters2) 100!!
b. (weight in Kg/Height in meters3) 100
c. (weight in Kg2)/Height in meters2) 100
d. (weight in Kg/2 x Height in meters2) 100
47. A 14 years old boy presents with history of frequent fighting at school disciplinary problems, stealing money, truancy and vandalism. What is the most appropriate diagnosis:
a. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
b. Autistic disorder
c. Narcissistic personality disorder
d. Conduct disorder!!
1. Shrinking lung disorder is seen is
a. Sjogren’s syndrome
b. Systemic lupus eruthematosus (cant get simpler )
c. Polyarthritis nodosa
d. Behcet’s syndrome
2. The drug of choice in scleroderma induced hypertensive crisis is
a. ACE inhibitors ( malignant hypertension and renal crisis needs a permanent solution! so dont answer as nitroprusside as it will work for few minutes and then back to square one.
b. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
c. Β – blockers
d. Sodium nitroprusside
3. Schistocytes are seen in
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Megaloblastic anemia
c. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia !! also known as burr cells and helmet cells
d. Aplastic anemia
4. Puddle’s sign is used to detect
a. Chylothorax
b. Ascites!!
c. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
d. Renal artery stenosis
5. Oral vancomycin can be used for treatment of
a. Hepatic encephalopathy
b. Pseudomembranous colitis!!
c. Staphylococcal food poisoning
d. None of the above
6. Which of the following could suggest presence of an ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in a patient with hypercortisolism
a. Hypertension
b. Glucose intolerance
c. Metabolic alkalosis!!
d. Truncal obesity
7. After taking alcohol, a hitherto healthy individual has persisting vomiting and vomits blood. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Boerhaave’s syndrome
b. Mallory Weiss syndrome!!
c. Barrett’s oesophagus
d. Carcinoma oesophagus
8. The most radio sensitive tumor amongst the following is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Seminoma!!
c. Soft tissue sarcoma
d. Lympho epithelioma
9. Most useful investigation of choice for liver abscess is
a. Exploratory laparotomy
b. Ultrasound !!
c. Liver enzymes
d. Parasite in the stool
10. The commonest fluid used for fluid resuscitation in burns is
a. Normal saline
b. Ringer lactate!!
c. Human albumin
d. Fresh frozen plasma
11. All of the following are clinical signs of hypothyroidism except
a. Cardiomegaly
b. Pericardial effusion
c. Tachycardia!!
d. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk
12. Radio isotope scan used in the diagnosis of Meckel’s diverticulum is
a. Tc99!!
b. I131
c. HIDA
d. RBC labeled
13. ‘Bloody Triad’ of massive blood loss and transfusion is characterized by
a. Acidosis, hypotension and oliguria
b. Acidosis, hypotension and coagulopathy
c. Acidosis, hypothermia and coagulopathy!!
d. Acidosis, hyperthermia and coagulopathy
14. Examination of the synovial fluid in tuberculosis usually reveals the following
a. Low count of leucocytes, increased glucose content and decreased proteins
b. Leucocytosis, decrease of both glucose and protein content
c. Leucocytosis, decreased glucose content and a raised protein content!!
d. Leucocytosis, increased glucose and protein content
15. Investigation of choice for detection & characterization of interstitial lung disease is
a. MRI
b. Ventilation – Perfusion Scan
c. High resolution C.T. scan!!
d. Chest X - ray
16. Pulsus bisferiens is seen in all of the following except
a. Aortic stenosis & aortic regurgitation
b. Mitral valve prolapse !!
c. Severe aortic regurgitation
d. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
17. All of the following are true of osteomalacia except
a. Proximal myopathy
b. Raised serum calcium !!
c. Bone biopsy shows increased demineralized bone matrix
d. Vitamin D deficiency
18. Major cause of death in ESRD (End Stage Renal Disease) patients on dialysis is
a. Cardiovascular disease
b. Infection!!
c. Uremia
d. Respiratory failure
19. Acromegaly is characterized by all except
a. Diabetes
b. Enlarged nasal sinuses
c. Increased heel pad thickness
d. Muscular hypertrophy!!
20. Which of the following conditions is not associated with ST segment elevations on ECG
a. Early repolarization
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Acute pericarditis
d. Hypocalcemia !!
21. Which one of the following diseases can produce atrioventricular block
a. Lyme’s disease!!
b. Malaria
c. Typhoid
d. Leptospirosis
22. Which of the following is not a complication of Crohn’s disease
a. Fistula formation
b. Stricture
c. Perineal sepsis
d. Toxic megacolon!!
23. A 29 yrs old unmarried female presents with dyspnea. Her chest X – Ray is normal, FVC- 92 % & FEV1/FVC-89%. On exercise, her oxygen saturation drops from 92 % to 90 %. What is the most likely diagnosis ( DIRECT AIIMS RIP OFF)
a. Alveolar hypoventilation
b. Primary pulmonary hypertension!!
c. Interstitial lung disease
d. Anxiety
24. Which one of the following condition is not associated with clubbing
a. Primary biliary cirrhosis
b. Chronic bronchitis!!
c. Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
d. Bronchiectasis
25. All of the following illness can occur at high attitude except
a. Cerebral oedema
b. Pulmonary oedema
c. Pulmonary barotraumas!! ( spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in smokers ....so NASA and IAF does not employ SMOKERS. )
d. Retinal hemorrhage (( i crossed checked on emedicine that is occurs.)
26. All of the following are features of cluster heacache except
a. It may be associated with unilateral photophobia/phonophobia
b. Onset of headache is nocturnal in about half of the patients
c. Patients tend to move about during attacks
d. Women are affected three times more often than men !!
27. Raynaud’s phenomenon has typical progression of colour change as follows
a. Red → Blue → White
b. Red → White → blue
c. blue → Red → White
d. White → Blue → Red!!
28. Human herpes virus 8 infection is associated with
a. Hairy cell leukemia
b. Kaposi sarcoma!!
c. Oral hairy leucoplakia
d. Molluscum contagiosum
29. All of the following are signs of hemorrhagic shock except
a. Tachycardia
b. Hypotension
c. Increased pulse pressure!!
d. Tachypnea
30. A man has had a lymph node biopsy. Histopathology of the node shows Reed – Sternberg cells. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Immune deficiency syndrome
b. Lymphoma!!
c. Tuberculosis
d. Non specific infection
31. A baby of 6 months weighing 8 kg is brought with acute diarrhea. He is drowsy and unable to drink. The ideal first line of management should be
a. Ringer lactate 250 ml in 1 hr
b. Ringer lactate 250 ml in 30 minutes!!
c. Ringer lactate 800 in 3 hrs
d. ORS 600-800 ml in 4 hrs
32. The ratio of chest compression to breathing in Pediatric life support is
a. 3:1!!
b. 4:1
c. 5:1
d. 6:1
33. Which type of cerebral palsy is most commonly seen as a sequel of billirubin encephalopathy
a. Spastic quadriparesis
b. Spastic diplegia
c. Atonic cerebral palsy
d. Extra pyramidal cerebral palsy!!
34. A 30 yrs old man presents with generalized edema, hematuria, hypertension and subnephrotic proteinuria (<2 gm). Urine examination shows microscopic hematuria, serum complement is decreased & positive for hepatitis C antibodies. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
b. Mied cryoglobulinemia
c. Lupus nephritis
d. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis !!
35. Which of the following is not true for achalasia cardia
a. Absence of gastric air bubble in bubble in chest X – ray
b. Symptoms of dysphagia and chest pain
c. Decreased pressure of lower esophageal sphincter on manometry!!
d. Nifedipne is effective in treatment
36. Which of the following is the most reliable clinical endpoint to indicate adequate atropinisation in organophsphate poisoning
a. Pupillary dilatation
b. Control of diarrhea
c. Heart rate more than or equal to 100 beats/min!!
d. Absence of oropharyngeal secretions
37. Whipple’s triad does not include documentation for
a. High insulin level!!
b. Symptoms consistent with hypoglycemia
c. Low plasma glucose
d. Relief of symptoms after raising plasma glucose
38. “Bone within bone” appearance is classically seen in
a. Osteogenesis imperfect
b. Osteopetreosis!!
c. Renal osteodystrophy
d. Achondroplasia
39. Which of the following is not a feature of Turner’s Syndrome
a. Adult stature less than 145 cms
b. Long 4th metacarpals and metarsals !!
c. Medial Tibial Exostosis
d. Lymphedema of dorsa of hands
40. Pulmonary fibrosis is a side effect associated with the use of
a. Actinomycin
b. Bleomycin!!
c. Doxorubicin
d. Mithramycin
41. All of the following are true about neuroendocrine response in shock except
a. Incrased cortisol
b. Increased insulin!!
c. Increased glucagon
d. Increased epinephrine
42. Oligemic lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
a. Transposition of great vessels
b. Atrial septal defect (ASD)!!
c. Tetralogy of Fallot
d. Pulmonary stenosis
43. Commonest causative organism for gas gangrene is
a. Clostridium septicum
b. Clostridium welchiii!!
c. Clostridium oedematiens
d. Clostridium histolyticus
44. (Patho) Renal vein thrombosis is most commonly associated with
a. Diabetic nephropathy
b. Membranous glomerulopathy!!
c. Minimal change disease
d. Membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis
45. (Patho) the most common complication of blood transfusion is
a. Haemolytic reaction
b. Embolism
c. Febrile and allergic reaction!!
d. Bacterial sepsis
46. Body mass index is calculated by
a. (weight in Kg/Height in meters2) 100!!
b. (weight in Kg/Height in meters3) 100
c. (weight in Kg2)/Height in meters2) 100
d. (weight in Kg/2 x Height in meters2) 100
47. A 14 years old boy presents with history of frequent fighting at school disciplinary problems, stealing money, truancy and vandalism. What is the most appropriate diagnosis:
a. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
b. Autistic disorder
c. Narcissistic personality disorder
d. Conduct disorder!!
