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Monday, December 5, 2011

MCI September 2011

1. Oculomotor nerve palsy affects all of the following muscles EXCEPT
a. Medial rectus
b. Superior oblique
c. Inferior oblique
d. Levator palpabrae superioris

2. A 25 year old male has restriction of eye movements in all the directions intermittent ptosis, proximal muscle weakness & fatigability. The most useful test would be
a. Edrophonium test
b. CPK
c. EMG
d. Muscle biopsy

3. All of the following can cause dissociated sensory loss except
a. Anterior spinal artery thromobosis
b. Syringomyelia
c. Ependymoma of spinal cord
d. Tabes dorsalis

4. Which of the following is a useful screening test of diagnosis of Cushing’s disease?
a. Low dose dexamethasone superior test
b. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
c. High dose dexamethasone suppression test
d. Measurement of fasting serum cortisol at 8AM

5. “Stocking or glove” distribution of sensory loss is a feature of
a. Radiculopathy
b. Peripheral neuropathy
c. Myelopathy
d. Cortical sensory loss

6. Criteria for classification of rheumatoid arthritis include all of the following except
a. Morning stiffness more than one hour
b. Symmetric arthritis
c. Symptoms for at least six months
d. Rheumatoid nodules

7. Substances which have the same atomic number but different mass number are called
a. Isobases
b. Isodoses
c. Isotopes
d. Isomers

8. The typical skin lesions seen in erythema multiforme are
a. Wheals
b. Target lesions
c. Bullae
d. Erosions

9. Hidradenitis suppurative is chronic infection is
a. Apocrine sweat gland
b. Sebaceous gland
c. Lymph node
d. Dermis

10. Drug of choice for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis in surgical patients is
a. Intravenous unfractionated heparin
b. Subcutaneous unfractionated heparin
c. Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin
d. Warfarin

11. Initial treatment for pulmonary embolism is
a. Fibrinolysis
b. Anticoagulation
c. Surgical embolectomy
d. Venacaval filter

12. A 43 year old female is diagnosed to have hydatid cyst. The most common site where this is found is:
a. Pancreas
b. Lung
c. Liver
d. Spleen

13. Cervical cancer vaccines are recommended for which age group
a. More than 18 years
b. 18-55 years
c. 9-26 years
d. All post menopausal females

14. High resolution CT is the ideal modality for evaluation of
a. Pleural effusion
b. Lung mass
c. Interstitial lung disease
d. Lymphadenopathy

15. Which of the following antitubercular agent DOES NOT cause hepato-toxicity?
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide

16. Which of the following disorders should be suspected in a new born with edema of hand and feet?
a. Turner syndrome
b. Marfan’s syndrome
c. Homocysteinuria

17. Renal vein thrombisis can occur in all of the following except
a. Trauma
b. Renal cell carcinoma
c. Sickle cell anaemia
d. Nephritic syndrome

18. The condition virtually pathognomonic of HIV disease is
a. Oral candidiasis
b. Molluscum contagiosum
c. Oral hairy leukoplakia
d. Tinea versicolor

19. What cut-off score of Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is used to detect dementia ?
a. Less than 20
b. Less than 24
c. Less than 27
d. Less than 29

20. Marrow plasmacytosis is diagnosis of multiple myeloma. What is the threshold level?
a. >5%
b. >10%
c. >30%
d. >50%

21. A patient diagnosed to have deep vein thrombosis is being treated with heparin. Which of the following test will you order to adjust its dosage
a. Platelet count
b. Prothrombin time
c. Bleeding time
d. Activated thromboplastin time

22. A construction worker has sustained a massive crush injury of right lower limb. He soon develops acute renal failure. Which complication has he developed
a. Necrotizing fasciitis
b. Acute osetomyelitis
c. Compartment syndrome
d. Crush syndrome

23. Extradural haematoma occurs because of
a. Rupture of dural sinus
b. Rupture of middle meningeal artery
c. Rupture of internal carotid artery
d. Rupture of middle cerebral artery

24. Recommended rate of chest compression during cardiopulmonary resuscitation in adults is
a. About 72 compression per minute
b. At least 72 compression per minute
c. About 100 compression per minute
d. At least 100 compression per minute

25. Which one of the following ophthalmological findings at characteristic of proliferative diagbetic retinopathy
a. Microaneurysms
b. Dot and blot haemorrhges
c. Macular scar
d. Neovasculariztion

26. Which of the following dose NOT cause hypoglycemia
a. Insulin
b. Glimepiride
c. Metformin
d. Gliclazide

27. All of the following are sings of aortic regurgitation except
a. Quincke’s sign
b. Duroziez’s sign
c. Carvello’s sign
d. De Musset’s sign

28. A 60 year old diabetic is being managed in a hospital for cellulitis. He suddenly develops hypotension. What is the most likely type of shock
a. Hemorrhagic
b. Neurogenic
c. Cardiogenic
d. Septic

29. Which of the following feature is NOT seen in Guilain Barre Syndrome?
a. Symmetric muscle weakness
b. Profound sensory loss
c. Cranial nerve involvement
d. Involvement of autonomic nervous system

30. Wegener’s granuloma is treated mainly by
a. Radiotherapy
b. Surgery
c. Cytotoxic drug and steroids
d. Laser excision

31. “Diffuse axonal Injury” is best detected on
a. Non contract CT
b. Contrast CT
c. MRI
d. Transcranial Doppler

32. Measles rash is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
a. Appears 4-5 days after onset of fever
b. It is macula-papular in character
c. It first appears on face and back on neck
d. It is associated with cervical and occipital lymphadenopathy

33. All of the following statements regarding Chikungunya arthritis is true,EXCEPT
a. Affects small joints most often
b. Causes early morning pain and swelling
c. Can persist for months
d. Early institution of steroids is essential

34. Following are the causes of the trachea ‘pushed’ to opposite side, EXCEPT in
a. Fibrocavitatory disease
b. Pleural effusion
c. Pneumothorax
d. Tumour

35. Which one of the following is NOT a function of temporal lobes
a. Audition
b. Emotion
c. Motivation
d. Memory

36. The microorgranism most intimately associated with seborrheic dermatitis is
a. Microsporum
b. Stretpcoccus
c. Corynebacterium
d. Pityrosporum

37. The single most effective way to prevent cross infection in hospitals is
a. Hand washing
b. Antibiotic prophylaxis
c. Vaccination
d. Isolation

38. Chagas disease is caused by infection with
a. Trypanosoma gambience
b. Trypanosoma rhodesiense
c. Trypanosoma cruzi
d. Trypanosoma brucei

39. The correct dose of vitamin A for xerophthamia in adult is
a. Two dose of 60 mg two weeks apart
b. Single dose of 60 mg
c. Two doses of 30 mg two week apart
d. Single dose of 30 mg

1 µg retinol = 3.33 IU. Dietary deficiency is traditionally treated with vitamin A palmitate in oil 60,000 IU po once/day for 2 days, followed by 4500 IU po once/day. If vomiting or malabsorption is present or xerophthalmia is probable, a dose of 50,000 IU for infants < 6 mo, 100,000 IU for infants 6 to 12 mo, or 200,000 IU for children > 12 mo and adults should be given for 2 days, with a third dose at least 2 wk later

40. The half life of serum albumin is about
a. 7 days
 b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days

41. Which of the following is NOT true regarding prolactinoma?
a. It may manifest as galactorrhea amenorrhea, hypogondism
b. They arise from acidophil cells of pituitary gland
c. Symptoms of raised intracranial tension may occur
d. Transphenoidal surgery is the treatment of choice

42. Which of the following is typically seen in hypothyroidism?
a. Weight loss
b. Tachycardia
c. Brisk tendon reflexes
d. Cold intolerance

43. Acute lymphangitis is caused by
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Pseudomonas
c. Escherichia coli
d. Staphylococcus aureus

44. Sunflower cataract is seen in
a. Chalcosis
b. Siderosis
c. Diabetes
d. Trauma

45. Largest source of radiation exposure to general population is
a. Computers
b. Diagnostic radiology
c. Nuclear weapons
d. Freon industry

46. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome and Torsades de pointes are the most feared adverse effects of one of the following drugs for sedation on the ICU
a. Dexmetomidine
b. Haloperidol
c. Propofol
d. Midazolam

47. 2 year old child with high fever and irritability develops seizures within 24 hours of onset. By 4th day, fever subsides and rashes appear. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Erythema infectiosum
b. Exanthema subitum
c. Measles
d. Typhus fever

48. Tractional retinal detachment is seen in
a. High myopia
b. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
c. Central retinal artery occlusion
d. Malignant hypertension

49. Cocaine overdose presents with all of the following except
a. Diaphoresis
b. Hypertension
c. Constricted pupils
d. Agitation

50. Sympathetic Ophthalmitis occurs following injury to
a. Lens iris and ciliary body
b. Optic nerve
c. Cornea

51. Isolated 3rd nerve palsy is seen in
a. Frontal lobe behavior
b. Weber’s syndrome
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Lateral medullary syndrome

52. Air travelers have an increased risk of
a. Venous thrombosis
b. Polycythemia
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Cerebral edema

53. All of the following are true regarding management of postural hypotension EXCEPT
a. Head up tilt of the bed
b. Correction of dehydration
c. Fludrocortisones
d. Avoid using Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs

54. CA 19-9 is usually associated with
a. Cancer ovary
b. Carcinoma beast
c. Carcinoma pancreas
d. Carcinoma lung

55. Acute onset dyspnoea is seen in all of the following conditions except
a. Pulmonary hamartoma
b. Pneumothorax
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Pulmonary edema

56. A 28 yrs old woman gave birth to a small of age newborn at 38 weeks of pregnancy. On examination, the new born found to have rhinitis, distended abdomen; wrinkled skin, and palmoplanter blister. The woman had an earlier history of abortion and stillbirth. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Neonatal pemphigus
b. Scabies
c. Congenital syphilis
d. Congenital HIV infection

57. Acute subdural haematoma is because of
a. Venous bleeding
b. Arterial bleeding
c. Capillary bleeding
d. Lymphatic oozing

58. Investigation of choice for pericardial effusion is
a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. Echocardiography
d. X-ray chest

59. Investigation of choice in acute subarachnoid haemorrhage is
a. Ultrasound
b. Non-contrast CT
c. Contrast-enhanced CT
d. Contrast –enhanced MRI

60. Beyond what age, absence of social smile is regarded as abnormal
a. 12 weeks
b. 14 weeks
c. 16 weeks
d. 18 weeks

61. Persistent cough may be caused by all of the following except
a. Post nasal drip
b. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
c. Angiotensin –II receptor antagonists
d. Gastro-esophageal reflux

62. Which one of the following is a feature of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
a. Gait disturbance
b. Aphasia
c. Global confusion
d. Ophthalmoplegia

63. The FAST questionnaire is used for identification of
a. Smoking problems
b. Alcohol problems
c. Sleep problems
d. Memory problems

64. The IV fluid used in Prakland formula for burns is
a. Normal saline
b. Dextrose saline
c. Ringer lactate
d. Haemacel

65. All of the following may be associated with esophageal carcinoma except
a. Barrett’s esophagus
b. Achlasia
c. Hiatus hernia
d. Chronic reflux esophagitis

66. The commonest cause of unilateral foul smelling nasal discharge in children in
a. Antrochoanal polyp
b. Foreign body
c. Acute sinusitis
d. Nasal diphtheria

67. PET imaging of tumour utilizes
a. 18FDG
b. 11C methonine
c. Indium III-DTPA
d. 99 m Tc-DTPA

68. Amenorrhoea is seen in all of the following conditions except
a. Pregnancy
b. Hyperprolactinemia
c. Insulinoma
d. Polycystic ovarian disease

69. First diagnosis to be considered in a patient with deep vein thrombosis with symptoms of chest pain, haemoptysis & breathlessness is
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Pleurisy
d. Pneumonia

70. All of the following are feature of tension pneumothorax except
a. Neck vein distention
b. Tachycardia
c. Chest pain
d. Hypertension

71. Investigation of choice for detecting minimal pleural effusion is
a. Ultrasound
b. CT scan
c. MRI
d. Chest X-ray

72. Polimyelitis involves
a. Anterior horn cells
b. Peripheral nerve
c. Motor cortex
d. Spinothalamic tracts

73. Dupuytren’s contracture of hand commonly start in
a. Thumbs
b. Index finger
c. Middle finger
d. Ring finger

74. In which of the following, orbital metastasis is common
a. Hypernephroma
b. Neuroblastoma
c. Melanoma
d. Hepatoma

75. Horner’s syndrome is characterized by all of the following except
a. Ipsilateral miosis
b. Ipsilateral anhydrosis
c. Ipsilateral proptosis
d. Ipsilateral enophthalmos

76. Scabies can be effectively treated systemically by
a. Psoralens
b. Ivermectin
c. Permethrin
d. Cotrimoxazole

77. A male had crush injury of the thigh. He did not seek any medical attention. 3 days later, he presented with sepsis. Examination of the thigh revealed wound under tension with crepitus. What is the most likely organism responsible for this condition
a. Streptococcus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Clostridium welchi

78. The best screening test for diagnosis of Wilson’s disease is
a. Estimation of serum ceruloplasmin
b. Estimation of serum copper
c. Estimation urinary copper
d. Eye test for KF ring

79. Most sensitive test for DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) is
a. D-Dimer assay
b. Prothrombin time
c. aPTT
d. TT (Thrombin Test)

80. Best way of pre-operative hair removal to achieve lowest rates of infection is
a. Shaving the night before surgery
b. Shaving just before surgery
c. Cream depilation
d. Hair clipping

81. The perinatal mortality rate is expressed as per 1000
a. Live births
b. Pregnancies
c. Total births
d. Infants

82. Test recommended to assess the relative patency and contribution of radial and ulnar arteries before connulation is
a. Snider’s test
b. Valsava test
c. Palpation of radial and ulnar pulse
d. Modified Allen test

83. The amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood dependent upon:
a. The hemoglobin level
b. The respiratory rate
c. The partial pressure of oxygen
d. Nitrites & suphonamides in blood

84. Myoglobinuria is most commonly seen in
a. Chemical burns
b. Electrical burns
c. Flame burns
d. Radiations burns

2 comments:

nancy said...

thanku sir for posting dis..
59th Q of mci sept 2011 n 31st Q of medicine and pediatrics march 2011 are same,what s its answer sir..

Raees said...

Thanks a lot sir…